ifr all

1. Question

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should

swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north.
exhibit the same number of degrees of clip as the latitude.
swing freely and indicate known headings.

2. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

3. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

4. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction, then turn a northerly indication but lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

5. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

6. Question

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360-degree turn, with a bank of approximately 15 degrees?

135 degrees through 225 degrees.
90 degrees and 270 degrees.
180 degrees and 0 degrees.

7. Question

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes.
Centrifugal force acting on the compass card.
The magnetic dip characteristic.

8. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

9. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

10. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on west for a short time, the gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

11. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft

12. Question

If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pilot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?

The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.
The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.
No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.

13. Question

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?

The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent.
The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.
The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.

14. Question

Refer to figure 144 below. What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a coordinated standard-rate turn?

Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.
Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.

15. Question

Refer to figure 144 below. Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?

3.
1.
2.

16. Question

Refer to figure 144 below. What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?

Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.
Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.

17. Question

Refer to figure 144 below. Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?

2.
1.
3.

18. Question

Refer to figure 144 below. Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?

1.
3.
2.

19. Question

What force causes an airplane to turn?

Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
Vertical lift component.
Horizontal lift component.

20. Question

The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon

the horizontal lift component.
the vertical lift component.
centrifugal force.

21. Question

What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal life component in a coordinated turn?

Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.
Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.

22. Question

The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the

thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.
vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.
use of ailerons has increased the drag.

23. Question

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?

Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is decreased.

24. Question

When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?

Decrease the angle of bank.
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
Decrease the angle of attack.

25. Question

When airspeed is decreased ina turn, which must be done to maintain level flight?

Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
Increase the angle of attack.

26. Question

When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?

Increase the pitch attitude and/or increase the angle of bank.
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the pitch attitude.
Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the pitch attitude

27. Question

The primary reason the pitch attitude must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the

thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.
vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.
use of pedals has increased the drag.

28. Question

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 300 degrees?

30 seconds.
40 seconds.
50 seconds.

29. Question

If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135 degrees?

1 minute.
1 minute, 20 seconds.
1 minute, 30 seconds.

30. Question

If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degrees?

1 minute.
2 minutes.
4 minutes.

31. Question

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180 degrees?

1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.

32. Question

If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 180 degrees?

30 seconds.
1 minute.
1 minute, 30 seconds.

33. Question

During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?

Rate of turn would increase and radius of turn would increase.
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would decrease.
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would increase.

34. Question

Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by

decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank.
decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.

35. Question

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 270 degrees?

1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.

36. Question

Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?

10%.
20%.
25%.

37. Question

Conditions that determine pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are:

flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.
airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.
relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.

38. Question

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately

10% of the vertical speed.
30% of the vertical speed.
50 percent of the vertical speed.

39. Question

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using

two bar widths on the attitude indicator.
less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator.
less than a half bar width on the attitude indicator.

40. Question

Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?

Altimeter and VSI.
Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.
Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.

41. Question

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a

full bar width on the attitude indicator.
half bar width on the attitude indicator.
two bar width on the attitude indicator.

42. Question

To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pitch should

first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed.
first reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific rate on the VSI.
simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.

43. Question

To level off at an airspeed higher than the constant speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately

50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.
100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.
150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude

44. Question

To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately

20 feet.
50 feet.
60 feet.

45. Question

While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb of 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.

46. Question

While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb of 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb.
attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
airspeed indication reaches 160 knots.

47. Question

What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

Instrument cross-check.
Power control.
Aircraft control.

48. Question

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

Aircraft control.
Instrument cross-check.
Instrument interpretation.

49. Question

What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?

Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control.

50. Question

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?

Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.
Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

51. Question

Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?

Altimeter and airspeed only.
Altimeter and VSI only.
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

52. Question

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?

Altimeter.
VSI.
Attitude indicator.

53. Question

Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?

Attitude indicator.
Heading indicator or magnetic compass.
Ball of the turn coordinator.

54. Question

While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the

airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.
airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement.
altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.

55. Question

If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude

Turn indicator and VSI.
Airspeed and altimeter.
VSI and airspeed to detect approaching VSI or VMO.

56. Question

Which is the correct sequence for recovery time from a spiraling nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?

Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.
Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
Correct the bank attitude, raise the nose to a level attitude, and reduce power.

57. Question

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant

the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane.
a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.
the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

58. Question

Refer to figure 145 below. What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings.
Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.
Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.

59. Question

Refer to figure 147 below. Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Level wings, add power, lower nose descend to original attitude and heading.
Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.
Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original attitude and heading

60. Question

Refer to figure 146 below. Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.

Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitude indicator.
Vacuum system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitch up to reduce airspeed.
Electrical system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce airspeed.

61. Question

Refer to figure 148 below. What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned

Climbing turn to left.
Climbing turn to right.
Level turn to left.

62. Question

Refer to figure 149 below. What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.

Level turn to the right.
Level turn to the left.
Straight-and-level flight.

63. Question

Refer to figure 150 below. What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.

Climbing turn to the right.
Climbing turn to the left.
Descending turn to the right.

64. Question

Refer to figure 151 below. What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.

Climbing turn to the right.
Level turn to the right.
Level turn to the left.

65. Question

If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?

Constant airspeed (Va).
Level flight attitude.
Constant attitude and constant airspeed.

66. Question

If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the

maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.
amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.
airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.

67. Question

When a climb or descent through an inversion of wind-shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?

A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent.
A sudden change in airspeed.
A sudden surge of thrust.

68. Question

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

Step hard on the brakes.
Hold nose up.
Go around.

69. Question

Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane’s tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?

Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
Dynamic hydroplaning.
Viscous hydroplaning.

70. Question

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

Apply full main wheel braking only.
Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.
Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.

71. Question

What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?

No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.

72. Question

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?

When rudder is used for directional controls instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.
During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.
During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.

73. Question

Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

Slant range distance in NM.
Slant range distance in SM.
Line-of-sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.

74. Question

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

0
1
1.3

75. Question

The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at

high altitudes far from the VORTAC.
high altitudes close to the VORTAC.
low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

76. Question

As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME select range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?

Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
No specific distance is specified since the reception is line-of-sight.

77. Question

To find the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for an accuracy check, which publication should you consult?

Airman's information manual.
En Route Low Altitude Chart.
Chart Supplement.

78. Question

When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?

Plus or minus 6 degrees of the designated radial.
Plus 6 degrees or minus 4 degrees of the designated radial.
Plus or minus 4 degrees of the designated radial.

79. Question

When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

090 radial.
180 radial.
360 radial.

80. Question

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?

4 degrees between the wo indicated radials of a VOR.
Plus or minus 4 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR.
6 degrees between the two indicated radials of a VOR.

81. Question

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni-bearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read

within 4 degrees of the selected radial.
within 6 degrees of the selected radial.
0 degrees TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.

82. Question

Refer to figure 81 below. When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR’s are satisfactory?

1
2
4

83. Question

While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?

Plus or minus 4 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR.
4° between the two indicated bearings to a VOR.
Plus or minus 6 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR.

84. Question

Refer to figure 82 below. Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VORs using one system against the other.

1
2
4

85. Question

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the COi should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
Set the OBS on the designated radial. The COi must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the COi should center with a FROM indication.

86. Question

Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?

On the IAP Chart and in the Chart Supplement.
Only in the Chart Supplement.
In the Chart Supplement and on the A/G Voice Communication Panel of the En Route Low Altitude Chart

87. Question

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?

360° TO and 003° TO, respectively.
001° FROM and 005° FROM, respectively.
176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.

88. Question

What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?

No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
Coded identification, but no navigation indications.
A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.

89. Question

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by

removal of the navigational feature.
broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel.
removal of the identification feature.

90. Question

When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of

20 second intervals at 1020 Hz.
30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
60 second intervals at 1350 Hz.

91. Question

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

The VOR and DME components are operative.
VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service.
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.

92. Question

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

75 NM.
100 NM.
200 NM.

93. Question

You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NAVAIDs should be

80 NM.
40 NM.
70 NM.

94. Question

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI?

4 degrees.
5 degrees.
10 degrees.

95. Question

Full scale deflection of a COi occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

deflects from left side of the scale to right side of the scale.
deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
deflects from half scale left to half scale right.

96. Question

When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?

The first movement of the COi as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.
The moment the TO-FROM indicator becomes blank.
The first positive, complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.

97. Question

Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?

The first flickering of the TO-FROM indicator and COi as the station is approached.
The first full-scale deflection of the COi.
The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.

98. Question

When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the COi from center to the last dot on either side should be between

5 degrees and 6 degrees.
8 degrees and 10 degrees.
10 degrees and 12 degrees.

99. Question

A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?

2 NM.
3 NM.
5 NM.

100. Question

An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the COi would be how far from the selected course centerline?

1-1/2 miles.
2-1/2 miles.
3-1/2 miles.

101. Question

Refer to figure 106 below. The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing left of center?

1
2
3

102. Question

Refer to figure 106 below. The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing right of center?

1
2
3

103. Question

After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?

The airplane is getting closer to the radial.
The OBS is erroneously set on the reciprocal heading.
The airplane is flying away from the radial.

104. Question

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?

2 degrees.
4 degrees.
5 degrees.

105. Question

Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5 degree wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots.

16 minutes and 14.3 NM.
18 minutes and 28.5 NM.
18 minutes and 33.0 NM.

106. Question

Refer to figure 109 below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Northeast
Southeast
Southwest

107. Question

Refer to figure 110 below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Southwest.
Northwest.
Northeast.

108. Question

Refer to figure 111 below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Northeast.
Southeast.
Northwest.

109. Question

Refer to figure 95 below. What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?

5.0 NM.
7.5 NM.
10.0 NM.

110. Question

Refer to figure 95 below. On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?

R-175.
R-165.
R-345.

111. Question

Refer to figure 95 below. Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

175 degrees.
165 degrees.
345 degrees.

112. Question

Refer to figure 95 below. What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?

1 degree.
2 degrees.
4 degrees.

113. Question

Refer to figure 95 below. Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?

174 degrees.
166 degrees.
335 degrees.

114. Question

Refer to figure 95 below. Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

166 degrees.
346 degrees.
354 degrees.

115. Question

Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “A” correspond?

1
8
11

116. Question

Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “B” correspond?

0
13
19

117. Question

Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?

6
7
12

118. Question

Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond?

4
15
17

119. Question

Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “E” correspond?

5
6
15

120. Question

Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?

10
14
16

121. Question

During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?

The airspeed indicator only.
The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.
The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed indicator.

122. Question

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become blocked, the indicated airspeed will

increase during a climb.
decrease during a climb.
remain constant regardless of altitude change.

123. Question

If the pitot tube ram air pressure hole and drain hole become obstructed, the airspeed indicator will operate

like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends.
like a very sluggish airspeed indicator lagging all the changes by minutes.
normally due to the static port pressure changes.

124. Question

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will

decrease and true altitude will increase.
increase and true altitude will decrease.
increase and true altitude will increase.

125. Question

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.
The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative.
The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative.

126. Question

What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?

The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.
The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.

127. Question

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

The vertical speed to show a climb.
The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent.
The altimeter to read higher than normal.

128. Question

You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you

may not proceed under IFR until the instrument is corrected by an authorized instrument repairman.
may take off under IFR and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.
may take off and proceed under IFR but only in VFR weather conditions.

129. Question

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above

sea level.
the standard datum plane.
ground level.

130. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

9 and 6..
9 only.
6 only.

131. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

11.
5 and 13.
7 and 11.

132. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “C” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

9
4
12

133. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “D” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

1
10
2

134. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “G” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading.

7 only.
7 and 11.
5 and 13.

135. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “F” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading.

4
11
5

136. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading.

8 only.
3 only.
8 and 3

137. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “H” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

8
1
2

138. Question

Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “I” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

4
12
11

139. Question

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?

Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation.
Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

140. Question

The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for

the cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.
better vertical separation of aircraft.
more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.

141. Question

If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter

on 29.92 inches Hg.
on the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
to the airport elevation.

142. Question

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92″ Hg?

Density.
Pressure.
Standard.

143. Question

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

pressure altitude at sea level.
true altitude at field elevation.
pressure altitude at field elevation.

144. Question

While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92″ Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?

24,000 feet.
25,000 feet.
26,000 feet.

145. Question

The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to

the field elevation.
29.92" Hg.
the current altimeter setting.

146. Question

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?

Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude with local temperature.
Use your computer and correct the field elevation for temperature.

147. Question

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?

Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the pressure altitude on the instrument face.
Set your altimeter to the field elevation and read the pressure altitude from the Kollsman window.
Contact an ATC facility FSS and request the current pressure altitude for the area.

148. Question

At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42″ Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately

7,500 feet.
6,000 feet.
6,500 feet.

149. Question

How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?

The pilot should contact ARTCC at least every 100 NM and request the altimeter setting.
FSS's along with the route broadcast the weather information at 15 minutes past the hour.
ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.

150. Question

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?

Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg.
Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.

151. Question

En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26″ Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?

100 feet MSL.
474 feet MSL.
206 feet below MSL.

152. Question

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?

Indicated.
Pressure.
Calibrated.

153. Question

En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57″ Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?

715 feet.
1,300 feet.
Sea level.

154. Question

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

155. Question

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

At standard temperature.
When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.

156. Question

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92″ Hg?

In warmer than standard air temperature.
In colder than standard air temperature.
When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

157. Question

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?

Air temperature lower than standard.
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
Air temperature warmer than standard.

158. Question

When an altimeter is changed from 30.11″ Hg to 29.92″ Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?

Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

159. Question

Which practical test should e made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?

Check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the instruments.
Check that the altitude of the miniature aircraft is wings level before turning on electrical power.
Turn on the electrical power and listen for an unusual or irregular mechanical noise.

160. Question

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the

ability to resist precession 90° to any applied force.
resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.

161. Question

What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.
After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.

162. Question

What pre-takeoff check should be made of the altitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.
The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.
The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.

163. Question

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an altitude indicator is unreliable?

The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.
The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.

164. Question

How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR en route and IFR approaches?

Flight manual supplement.
GPS operator's manual.
Aircraft owner's handbook.

165. Question

During coordinated turns, which force moves the pendulous vanes of a vacuum-driven altitude indicator resulting in precession of the gyro toward the inside of the turn?

Acceleration.
Deceleration.
Centrifugal.

166. Question

Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as

the principal reference to determine en route waypoints.
an aid to situational awareness.
the primary source of navigation.

167. Question

When may VFR waypoints be used in IFR flight plans?

When GPS is used as the primary source of navigation.
When the waypoints consist of 5 letter identifiers.
VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans.

168. Question

During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved TS0-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities

are only required during the approach portion of the flight.
must be operational along the entire route.
must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage.

169. Question

During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation,

no other navigation system is required.
active monitoring of an alternate navigation system is always required.
the aircraft must have an approved TSO C129 or TSO-C196 and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.

170. Question

What are the primary benefits of satellite-based area navigation (RNAV)?

Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized.
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not required.

171. Question

A handbook GPS is

not authorized for IFR use.
authorized for IFR use under VMC.
authorized for IFR use under IMC until the runway is in sight.

172. Question

Effective navigation by means of GPS includes

determining the current status of all databases.
ensuring that ATC approves your planned route.
relying solely on the GPS for course information.

173. Question

If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the altitude indicator

should immediately show straight-and-level flight.
may show a slight climb and turn.
show a slight skid and climb to the right.

174. Question

Why should pilots understand how to cancel entries made on a GPS?

Because GPS units frequently provide wrong or false information.
Because heavy workloads and turbulence can increase data entry errors.
Because published route names commonly change.

175. Question

Reliance on GPS units

can cause pilots to lose proficiency in performing manual calculations of time, distance, and heading.
will increase a pilot's skill in navigating by visual reference.
does not decrease pilot workload.

176. Question

Before a pilot utilizes a GPS route or procedure, what would be an acceptable method of verifying the GPS database is current?

Check to see if all waypoints on the GPS route match points on procedure charts.
Call FSS and verify that the GPS database is current.
Query the ATC facility issuing your IFR clearance as to database currency

177. Question

During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?

A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.
The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level altitude.

178. Question

When your aircraft is equipped with a TS0-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate.
the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting and no LAAS equipment operational.
the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area.

179. Question

When planning an IFR flight using GPS, the pilot should know that VFR waypoints

are not recognized by the IFR system and will be rejected for IFR routing.
can be used to aid in defining the route in the FAA flight plan if the waypoint name has a 5- letter identifier.
can be used to define direct routing under IFR if they are retrieved from a current database and identified by a four-point star.

180. Question

Prior to using GPS waypoints for RNAV, what can you do to check the current status of the GPS database?

Contact the local FSS and have them verify the current status of the database.
Contact the ATC/ARTCC that issued the En Route Low Altitude chart to verify the current status of the GPS waypoints.
Compare the GPS database to the En Route Low Altitude chart. If they are the same, the GPS database is current.

181. Question

While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?

The approach mode annunciation will disengage.
The altitude mode will disengage.
The altitude and heading modes will disengage.

182. Question

GPS systems certified for IFR operations cannot be used as a substitute for DME receivers

to determine aircraft position or a DME fix at altitudes above 24,000 feet.
to fly a DME arc.
in selecting an alternate that requires use of DME.

183. Question

When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have

a GPS approach with GBAS that is anticipated to be operational or available at the ETA.
a GPS approach if no WMS outage is expected.
an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.

184. Question

Your aircraft is equipped with a WMS enabled GPS unit. While performing a GPS approach, you note an “LNAVN NAV available” indication on the moving map display and horizontal situation indicator. You know that

you can use the LPV minimums line on the IAP chart with this indication.
the indication reflects an artificially created advisory glidepath that you can use to descend to the LNAV MDA.
you can descend to GBAS approach minimums indicated on the IAP.

185. Question

Aircraft operating under IFR with TSO-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have installed

VOR/DME with RNAV capabilities.
a backup GPS receiver.
the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVAIDs along the route.

186. Question

Which of the following is a benefit of flying with an autopilot?

Pilots will not need to worry about controlling airspeed or throttle settings.
Airspace restrictions will automatically be avoided.
Pilot workload is reduced

187. Question

In an autopilot-controlled system, what device actually moves the control surfaces?

Gyroscope.
Servo.
Vacuum pump.

188. Question

To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system

pilots must verify that the aircraft is tracking the intended flight profile.
it is important to ensure that all navigational databases are current.
current navigational charts are required.

189. Question

During normal operation of a vacuum-driven altitude indicator, what altitude indication should you see when rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight-and-level coordinated flight?

A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
A nose-high indication relative to level flight.
The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid.

190. Question

Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an altitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a

180° turn.
270° turn.
360° turn.

191. Question

When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

left turn.
climb.
descent.

192. Question

During normal flight with a vacuum driven attitude indicator, control pressures normally should not move the horizon bar more than

One bar width, with not more than an additional one bar width for normal flight deviations.
One-half bar width, with not more than an additional one bar width for normal flight deviations.
One-half bar width, with not more than an additional one-half bar width for normal flight deviations.

193. Question

When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

climb.
descent.
right turn.

194. Question

Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-and-slip indicator to determine if the

needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon.
needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.
ball will move freely from one end of the tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

195. Question

What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?

The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered.
The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.

196. Question

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a right turn while taxiing?

The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and ball remains centered.
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the right and the ball moves to the left.
Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.

197. Question

What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?

Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.

198. Question

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?

Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Angle of bank and rate of turn.
Angle of bank.

199. Question

What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?

Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.
Quality of the turn.

200. Question

The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will

indicate the angle of bank.
remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.
increase as angle of bank increases.

201. Question

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?

The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.

202. Question

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator display?

The indicator first shows the rate of banking and, once stabilized, the rate of turn.
Indirectly bank angle and then directly rate of turn.
Indirectly bank angle and rate of turn.

203. Question

In a left turn, correct control coordination is indicated by

The ball of the turn coordinator in the center.
The ball of the turn coordinator to the left of center.
The ball of the turn coordinator to the right of center.

204. Question

Which is true of glass cockpits?

They enhance situational awareness.
They require less frequent training.
They give less reliable information to the pilot than traditional instruments.

205. Question

Which display combines instruments such as an altimeter, attitude indicator, and vertical speed indicator onto one given screen?

Multi-function display.
Primary flight display.
Glass cockpit display.

206. Question

Primary flight displays

primarily present terrain avoidance.
provide traffic information.
include instruments like the attitude indicator.

207. Question

In a Technology Advanced Aircraft, the pilot sees the flight instruments on what?

PFD.
AHRS.
MFD.

208. Question

The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation

are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.
have proven to increase safety in operations.
may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

209. Question

When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits,

greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved.
risk is increased.
risk is decreased.

210. Question

The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to

complacency.
fatigue.
resignation.

211. Question

Automation in aircraft has proven

to present new hazards in its limitations.
that automation is basically flawless.
effective in preventing accidents.

212. Question

An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can

compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge.
offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.
improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts.

213. Question

Refer to figure 138 below. What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway, and the threshold lights?

No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.
Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.
Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

214. Question

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.
Red chevron marks in the non-landing position of the runway.

215. Question

Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
—

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

216. Question

Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?

250 feet.
500 feet.
750 feet.

217. Question

Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?

1,000 feet.
500 feet.
250 feet.

218. Question

Destination signs indicate

The taxiway a pilot is on.
The runway a pilot is on.
The direction to takeoff runways.

219. Question

The “ILS critical area boundary” sign identifies the

Area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
Edge of the U.S. critical area.
Exit boundary for the runway protected area.

220. Question

The “runway hold position” sign denotes

an entrance to a taxiway from runway.
an entrance to a runway from a taxiway.
an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway.

221. Question

The “No Entry” sign identifies

the exit boundary for the runway protected area.
an area that does not continue beyond intersection.
paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

222. Question

What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

Defines direction and designation of runway when exiting a taxiway.
Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway.
Defines a mandatory exit point from the runway during Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).

223. Question

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Indicates direction to take-off runway

224. Question

Refer to figure 254 below. Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

225. Question

Refer to figure 254 below. While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

226. Question

Refer to figure 254 below. Which sign indicates you are holding short of the ILS critical area?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

227. Question

A runway exit sign

points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway.
designates an intersection of two or more runways.
shows the direction to exit from a named taxiway onto a runway.

228. Question

“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiway

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
allows an aircraft permission onto the runway

229. Question

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates

direction to the take-off runway.
designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
designation area direction of exit taxiway from runway.

230. Question

Within aircraft movement areas, “destination signs” identify the

runway on which an aircraft is located.
direction to the takeoff runway.
entrance to the runway from a taxiway.

231. Question

Refer to figure 94 below. Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

yellow lettering with a black background.
white lettering with a red background.
black lettering with a yellow background.

232. Question

Refer to figure 94 below. What colors are runway holding position signs?

Location sign.
Mandatory instruction sign.
Direction sign.

233. Question

Refer to figure 94 below. What colors are runway holding position signs?

White with a red background.
Red with a white background.
Yellow with a black background.

234. Question

Refer to figure 94 below. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are

white, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
yellow, and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

235. Question

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

236. Question

Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?

5
6
7

237. Question

Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?

4
5
6

238. Question

Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?

4
5
6

239. Question

Which of the following terms describes an airport?

An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
An area of land that is used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft, but does not include buildings since not all airports have buildings.
All runway, taxiway, and ramp areas created for use by aircraft.

240. Question

The Glide Path Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between

The final approach fix and the missed approach point.
Decision altitude and the runway threshold.
Any initial approach fix(es) and the final approach fix.

241. Question

The term “airport” means an area of land or water that is

Scheduled for use as an airport.
Used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft and includes taxiways and other ground movement areas.
Used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.

242. Question

Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a private pilot certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?

Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter.
No. You must hold either an unrestricted airline transport pilot-airplane certificate or an airplane instrument rating.
No. However, you may do so if you hold an airline transport pilot-airplane certificate limited to VFR.

243. Question

Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?

When operating in Class E airspace.
For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.

244. Question

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating

under IFR in positive control airspace.
under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace.
in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.

245. Question

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?

All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions.
All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.
Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.

246. Question

To meet instrument experience requirements of CFR Part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what other qualifying information must also be entered?

Location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot.
Number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight.
Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed.

247. Question

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?

All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.
Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

248. Question

What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?

The flight must remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing.
The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot.
The ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.

249. Question

How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument proficiency check if no further IFR flights are made?

90 days.
6 calendar months.
12 calendar months.

250. Question

No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.
six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions.
three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours.

251. Question

After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?

6 months.
90 days.
12 months.

252. Question

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, in the same category of aircraft:

holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems, and six instrument approaches.
six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.
6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft, and six instrument approaches.

253. Question

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

white and the far bar as red.
red and the far bar as white.
white and the far bar as white.

254. Question

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.
If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

255. Question

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA the pilot should

start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.
continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.
level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

256. Question

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will

both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath.
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath.
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.

257. Question

Refer to figure 136 below. An “on glidepath” indication is

8
10
11

258. Question

Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8 degree) indication?

9
10
11

259. Question

Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5 degrees?

10
11
12

260. Question

Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?

10
11
12

261. Question

Refer to figure 162 below. You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates

you are on the centerline for your assigned runway.
you are too low on the approach.
you have lined up with the wrong runway.

262. Question

The primary purpose of runway and identifier lights installed at many airfields is to provide

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.
rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.

263. Question

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?0

MALSR.
HIRL.
REIL.

264. Question

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

Direct headwind.
Direct tailwind.
Light quartering tailwind.

265. Question

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed.
the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
C. of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

266. Question

Refer to figure 158 below. With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner’s vortices.

The winds will push the vortices southeast of your takeoff path.
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

267. Question

What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?

The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength.
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

268. Question

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point..
At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
Beyond the jet's touchdown point.

269. Question

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?

Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.
Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.

270. Question

What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline.
Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing.
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.

271. Question

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
Only when advised by ATC.

272. Question

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?

Reporting VFR conditions to ARTCC.
Obtaining an amended clearance authorizing VFR flight.
Seeing and avoiding other aircraft.

273. Question

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from

the ATIS broadcast.
the FSS.
Notices to Airmen (Class II).

274. Question

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts.
To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.
To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

275. Question

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?

Notices to Airmen Publication.
FAA FSS.
Chart Supplement.

276. Question

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?

Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) NOTAMs.
Chart Supplement and FDC NOTAMs.
Chart Supplement and Distant (D) NOTAMs.

277. Question

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that

the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

278. Question

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

the in-flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace.
the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, D, or E airspace.
an IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.

279. Question

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.

280. Question

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

Current NOTAMs (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
All current NOTAMs only.
Pointer NOTAMs and FDC NOTAMs.

281. Question

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
The point of first intended landing.

282. Question

Refer to figure 1 below. Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?

DME, and airborne radar.
DME, transponder, and type of altimeter.
DME, transponder, and RNAV.

283. Question

Refer to figure 1 below. What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?

Altitude for first leg.
Altitude for first leg and highest altitude.
Highest altitude.

284. Question

Refer to figure 1 below. The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?

Total fuel required for the flight.
Total usable fuel on board.
The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45-minute reserve.

285. Question

What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?

A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.
A reporting point defined by the intersection of two VOR radials.
A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals.

286. Question

You may cancel an IFR flight plan

at any time as long as you advise ATC.
only in an emergency.
if in VMC outside Class A airspace.

287. Question

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower?

The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight.
You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility.
Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.

288. Question

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

289. Question

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)

Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

290. Question

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

DP or transition name and altitude to maintain.
Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.
Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

291. Question

An abbreviated departure clearance “…CLEARED AS FILED…” will always contain the name

and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.

292. Question

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

293. Question

On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED–MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND — SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE — DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

departure control frequency.
transportation costs.
destination airport and route.

294. Question

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”?

The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

295. Question

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”

The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach. procedure.
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.
The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

296. Question

What is the rule or a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?”

The pilot is required to accept the controller's clearance in visual meteorological conditions.
The pilot must accept the clearance if the pavement is dry and the stopping distance is adequate.
The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

297. Question

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC
climb to, but not descend from, 4,000 feet without further ATC clearance.
use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.

298. Question

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

When visibility is less than 1 mile.
When parallel runways are in use.
When departing from a runway intersection.

299. Question

During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departure

before entering the clouds.
when the tower instructs the change.
upon reaching the traffic pattern altitude.

300. Question

When should you transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?

Only when ATC requests Mode C.
At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
When passing 12,500 feet MSL.

301. Question

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?

Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.
Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute.

302. Question

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

As rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached.
1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude.
As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

303. Question

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.
Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

304. Question

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute..
500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.
1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.

305. Question

What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?

Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar has been lost.

306. Question

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on
established airways?

Fixes selected to define the route.
There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
All the changeover points.

307. Question

During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

40 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose.
20 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose.
Straight ahead.

308. Question

While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?

Continue as directed.
Advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.
Deviate as needed, then rejoin the approach.

309. Question

You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should

turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.
continue as assigned and query ATC.
turn inbound and join the final approach course.

310. Question

What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)

Reduce TAS to 160 knots and maintain until advised by ATC.
Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC.
Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.

311. Question

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that

You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.
You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

312. Question

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?

Set transponder to code 1200.
Resume normal position reporting.
Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.

313. Question

What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
Radar service is terminated.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

314. Question

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?

Separation from all aircraft.
Position and altitude of all traffic within2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude.
Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

315. Question

While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when

ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.
ground speed changes 10 MPH or more.

316. Question

Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of

500 feet per minute.
400 feet per nautical mile
200 feet per nautical mile

317. Question

When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the
destination?

Immediately after canceling the flight plan.
When advised by ARTCC.
Before entering Class D airspace.

318. Question

What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?

Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
Emergency handling is required to the nearest usable airport.
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

319. Question

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)

Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.

320. Question

You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530 . At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.

321. Question

You are !n IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.
Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions.
Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions.

322. Question

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA's along the clearance route.

323. Question

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival.
Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.

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