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- 922
- Current
- Review
- Answered
- Incorrect
-
Question 1 of 922
1. Question
On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 2 of 922
2. Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 3 of 922
3. Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 4 of 922
4. Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 5 of 922
5. Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 6 of 922
6. Question
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360-degree turn, with a bank of approximately 15 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 7 of 922
7. Question
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 8 of 922
8. Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 9 of 922
9. Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 10 of 922
10. Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 11 of 922
11. Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 12 of 922
12. Question
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pilot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 13 of 922
13. Question
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 14 of 922
14. Question
Refer to figure 144 below. What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a coordinated standard-rate turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 15 of 922
15. Question
Refer to figure 144 below. Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 16 of 922
16. Question
Refer to figure 144 below. What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 17 of 922
17. Question
Refer to figure 144 below. Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 18 of 922
18. Question
Refer to figure 144 below. Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 19 of 922
19. Question
What force causes an airplane to turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 20 of 922
20. Question
The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 21 of 922
21. Question
What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal life component in a coordinated turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 22 of 922
22. Question
The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 23 of 922
23. Question
During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 24 of 922
24. Question
When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 25 of 922
25. Question
When airspeed is decreased ina turn, which must be done to maintain level flight?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 26 of 922
26. Question
When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 27 of 922
27. Question
The primary reason the pitch attitude must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 28 of 922
28. Question
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 300 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 29 of 922
29. Question
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 30 of 922
30. Question
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 31 of 922
31. Question
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 32 of 922
32. Question
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 180 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 33 of 922
33. Question
During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 34 of 922
34. Question
Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 35 of 922
35. Question
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 270 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 36 of 922
36. Question
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 37 of 922
37. Question
Conditions that determine pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are:
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 38 of 922
38. Question
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 39 of 922
39. Question
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 40 of 922
40. Question
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 41 of 922
41. Question
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 42 of 922
42. Question
To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pitch should
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 43 of 922
43. Question
To level off at an airspeed higher than the constant speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 44 of 922
44. Question
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 45 of 922
45. Question
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb of 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 46 of 922
46. Question
While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb of 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 47 of 922
47. Question
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 48 of 922
48. Question
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 49 of 922
49. Question
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 50 of 922
50. Question
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 51 of 922
51. Question
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 52 of 922
52. Question
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 53 of 922
53. Question
Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 54 of 922
54. Question
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 55 of 922
55. Question
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 56 of 922
56. Question
Which is the correct sequence for recovery time from a spiraling nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 57 of 922
57. Question
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 58 of 922
58. Question
Refer to figure 145 below. What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 59 of 922
59. Question
Refer to figure 147 below. Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 60 of 922
60. Question
Refer to figure 146 below. Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 61 of 922
61. Question
Refer to figure 148 below. What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 62 of 922
62. Question
Refer to figure 149 below. What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 63 of 922
63. Question
Refer to figure 150 below. What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 64 of 922
64. Question
Refer to figure 151 below. What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 65 of 922
65. Question
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 66 of 922
66. Question
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 67 of 922
67. Question
When a climb or descent through an inversion of wind-shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 68 of 922
68. Question
What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 69 of 922
69. Question
Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane’s tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 70 of 922
70. Question
What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 71 of 922
71. Question
What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 72 of 922
72. Question
Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 73 of 922
73. Question
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 74 of 922
74. Question
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 75 of 922
75. Question
The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 76 of 922
76. Question
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME select range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 77 of 922
77. Question
To find the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for an accuracy check, which publication should you consult?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 78 of 922
78. Question
When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 79 of 922
79. Question
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 80 of 922
80. Question
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 81 of 922
81. Question
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni-bearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 82 of 922
82. Question
Refer to figure 81 below. When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR’s are satisfactory?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 83 of 922
83. Question
While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 84 of 922
84. Question
Refer to figure 82 below. Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VORs using one system against the other.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 85 of 922
85. Question
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 86 of 922
86. Question
Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 87 of 922
87. Question
Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 88 of 922
88. Question
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 89 of 922
89. Question
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 90 of 922
90. Question
When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 91 of 922
91. Question
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 92 of 922
92. Question
For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 93 of 922
93. Question
You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NAVAIDs should be
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 94 of 922
94. Question
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 95 of 922
95. Question
Full scale deflection of a COi occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
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Question 96 of 922
96. Question
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
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Question 97 of 922
97. Question
Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?
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Question 98 of 922
98. Question
When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the COi from center to the last dot on either side should be between
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Question 99 of 922
99. Question
A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?
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Question 100 of 922
100. Question
An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the COi would be how far from the selected course centerline?
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Question 101 of 922
101. Question
Refer to figure 106 below. The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing left of center?
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Question 102 of 922
102. Question
Refer to figure 106 below. The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing right of center?
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Question 103 of 922
103. Question
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
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Question 104 of 922
104. Question
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?
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Question 105 of 922
105. Question
Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5 degree wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots.
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Question 106 of 922
106. Question
Refer to figure 109 below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
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Question 107 of 922
107. Question
Refer to figure 110 below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
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Question 108 of 922
108. Question
Refer to figure 111 below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
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Question 109 of 922
109. Question
Refer to figure 95 below. What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?
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Question 110 of 922
110. Question
Refer to figure 95 below. On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?
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Question 111 of 922
111. Question
Refer to figure 95 below. Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?
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Question 112 of 922
112. Question
Refer to figure 95 below. What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?
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Question 113 of 922
113. Question
Refer to figure 95 below. Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?
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Question 114 of 922
114. Question
Refer to figure 95 below. Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?
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Question 115 of 922
115. Question
Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “A” correspond?
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Question 116 of 922
116. Question
Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “B” correspond?
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Question 117 of 922
117. Question
Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?
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Question 118 of 922
118. Question
Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond?
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Question 119 of 922
119. Question
Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “E” correspond?
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Question 120 of 922
120. Question
Refer to figure 98 and figure 99 below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?
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Question 121 of 922
121. Question
During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?
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Question 122 of 922
122. Question
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become blocked, the indicated airspeed will
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Question 123 of 922
123. Question
If the pitot tube ram air pressure hole and drain hole become obstructed, the airspeed indicator will operate
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Question 124 of 922
124. Question
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
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Question 125 of 922
125. Question
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?
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Question 126 of 922
126. Question
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?
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Question 127 of 922
127. Question
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?
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Question 128 of 922
128. Question
You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you
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Question 129 of 922
129. Question
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above
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Question 130 of 922
130. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading
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Question 131 of 922
131. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading
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Question 132 of 922
132. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “C” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading
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Question 133 of 922
133. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “D” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading
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Question 134 of 922
134. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “G” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading.
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Question 135 of 922
135. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “F” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading.
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Question 136 of 922
136. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading.
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Question 137 of 922
137. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “H” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading
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Question 138 of 922
138. Question
Refer to figure 96 and figure 97 below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “I” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading
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Question 139 of 922
139. Question
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
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Question 140 of 922
140. Question
The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for
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Question 141 of 922
141. Question
If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter
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Question 142 of 922
142. Question
Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92″ Hg?
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Question 143 of 922
143. Question
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
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Question 144 of 922
144. Question
While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92″ Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?
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Question 145 of 922
145. Question
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to
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Question 146 of 922
146. Question
How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?
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Question 147 of 922
147. Question
How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
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Question 148 of 922
148. Question
At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42″ Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately
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Question 149 of 922
149. Question
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?
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Question 150 of 922
150. Question
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?
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Question 151 of 922
151. Question
En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26″ Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?
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Question 152 of 922
152. Question
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?
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Question 153 of 922
153. Question
En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57″ Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?
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Question 154 of 922
154. Question
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
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Question 155 of 922
155. Question
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
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Question 156 of 922
156. Question
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92″ Hg?
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Question 157 of 922
157. Question
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?
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Question 158 of 922
158. Question
When an altimeter is changed from 30.11″ Hg to 29.92″ Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?
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Question 159 of 922
159. Question
Which practical test should e made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
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Question 160 of 922
160. Question
One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the
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Question 161 of 922
161. Question
What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
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Question 162 of 922
162. Question
What pre-takeoff check should be made of the altitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
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Question 163 of 922
163. Question
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an altitude indicator is unreliable?
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Question 164 of 922
164. Question
How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR en route and IFR approaches?
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Question 165 of 922
165. Question
During coordinated turns, which force moves the pendulous vanes of a vacuum-driven altitude indicator resulting in precession of the gyro toward the inside of the turn?
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Question 166 of 922
166. Question
Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as
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Question 167 of 922
167. Question
When may VFR waypoints be used in IFR flight plans?
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Question 168 of 922
168. Question
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved TS0-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
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Question 169 of 922
169. Question
During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation,
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Question 170 of 922
170. Question
What are the primary benefits of satellite-based area navigation (RNAV)?
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Question 171 of 922
171. Question
A handbook GPS is
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Question 172 of 922
172. Question
Effective navigation by means of GPS includes
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Question 173 of 922
173. Question
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the altitude indicator
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Question 174 of 922
174. Question
Why should pilots understand how to cancel entries made on a GPS?
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Question 175 of 922
175. Question
Reliance on GPS units
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Question 176 of 922
176. Question
Before a pilot utilizes a GPS route or procedure, what would be an acceptable method of verifying the GPS database is current?
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Question 177 of 922
177. Question
During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?
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Question 178 of 922
178. Question
When your aircraft is equipped with a TS0-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
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Question 179 of 922
179. Question
When planning an IFR flight using GPS, the pilot should know that VFR waypoints
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Question 180 of 922
180. Question
Prior to using GPS waypoints for RNAV, what can you do to check the current status of the GPS database?
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Question 181 of 922
181. Question
While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?
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Question 182 of 922
182. Question
GPS systems certified for IFR operations cannot be used as a substitute for DME receivers
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Question 183 of 922
183. Question
When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have
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Question 184 of 922
184. Question
Your aircraft is equipped with a WMS enabled GPS unit. While performing a GPS approach, you note an “LNAVN NAV available” indication on the moving map display and horizontal situation indicator. You know that
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Question 185 of 922
185. Question
Aircraft operating under IFR with TSO-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have installed
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Question 186 of 922
186. Question
Which of the following is a benefit of flying with an autopilot?
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Question 187 of 922
187. Question
In an autopilot-controlled system, what device actually moves the control surfaces?
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Question 188 of 922
188. Question
To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system
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Question 189 of 922
189. Question
During normal operation of a vacuum-driven altitude indicator, what altitude indication should you see when rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight-and-level coordinated flight?
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Question 190 of 922
190. Question
Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an altitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a
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Question 191 of 922
191. Question
When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
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Question 192 of 922
192. Question
During normal flight with a vacuum driven attitude indicator, control pressures normally should not move the horizon bar more than
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Question 193 of 922
193. Question
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
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Question 194 of 922
194. Question
Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-and-slip indicator to determine if the
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Question 195 of 922
195. Question
What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?
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Question 196 of 922
196. Question
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a right turn while taxiing?
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Question 197 of 922
197. Question
What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
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Question 198 of 922
198. Question
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
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Question 199 of 922
199. Question
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
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Question 200 of 922
200. Question
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
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Question 201 of 922
201. Question
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
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Question 202 of 922
202. Question
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator display?
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Question 203 of 922
203. Question
In a left turn, correct control coordination is indicated by
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Question 204 of 922
204. Question
Which is true of glass cockpits?
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Question 205 of 922
205. Question
Which display combines instruments such as an altimeter, attitude indicator, and vertical speed indicator onto one given screen?
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Question 206 of 922
206. Question
Primary flight displays
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Question 207 of 922
207. Question
In a Technology Advanced Aircraft, the pilot sees the flight instruments on what?
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Question 208 of 922
208. Question
The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation
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Question 209 of 922
209. Question
When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits,
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Question 210 of 922
210. Question
The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to
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Question 211 of 922
211. Question
Automation in aircraft has proven
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Question 212 of 922
212. Question
An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can
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Question 213 of 922
213. Question
Refer to figure 138 below. What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway, and the threshold lights?
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Question 214 of 922
214. Question
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
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Question 215 of 922
215. Question
Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
—
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Question 216 of 922
216. Question
Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?
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Question 217 of 922
217. Question
Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?
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Question 218 of 922
218. Question
Destination signs indicate
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Question 219 of 922
219. Question
The “ILS critical area boundary” sign identifies the
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Question 220 of 922
220. Question
The “runway hold position” sign denotes
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Question 221 of 922
221. Question
The “No Entry” sign identifies
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Question 222 of 922
222. Question
What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
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Question 223 of 922
223. Question
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
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Question 224 of 922
224. Question
Refer to figure 254 below. Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
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Question 225 of 922
225. Question
Refer to figure 254 below. While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?
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Question 226 of 922
226. Question
Refer to figure 254 below. Which sign indicates you are holding short of the ILS critical area?
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Question 227 of 922
227. Question
A runway exit sign
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Question 228 of 922
228. Question
“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiway
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Question 229 of 922
229. Question
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates
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Question 230 of 922
230. Question
Within aircraft movement areas, “destination signs” identify the
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Question 231 of 922
231. Question
Refer to figure 94 below. Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
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Question 232 of 922
232. Question
Refer to figure 94 below. What colors are runway holding position signs?
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Question 233 of 922
233. Question
Refer to figure 94 below. What colors are runway holding position signs?
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Question 234 of 922
234. Question
Refer to figure 94 below. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
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Question 235 of 922
235. Question
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
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Question 236 of 922
236. Question
Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
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Question 237 of 922
237. Question
Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?
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Question 238 of 922
238. Question
Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
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Question 239 of 922
239. Question
Which of the following terms describes an airport?
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Question 240 of 922
240. Question
The Glide Path Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between
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Question 241 of 922
241. Question
The term “airport” means an area of land or water that is
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Question 242 of 922
242. Question
Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a private pilot certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?
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Question 243 of 922
243. Question
Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?
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Question 244 of 922
244. Question
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating
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Question 245 of 922
245. Question
What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?
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Question 246 of 922
246. Question
To meet instrument experience requirements of CFR Part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what other qualifying information must also be entered?
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Question 247 of 922
247. Question
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
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Question 248 of 922
248. Question
What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?
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Question 249 of 922
249. Question
How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument proficiency check if no further IFR flights are made?
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Question 250 of 922
250. Question
No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least
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Question 251 of 922
251. Question
After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
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Question 252 of 922
252. Question
To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, in the same category of aircraft:
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Question 253 of 922
253. Question
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
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Question 254 of 922
254. Question
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
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Question 255 of 922
255. Question
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA the pilot should
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Question 256 of 922
256. Question
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
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Question 257 of 922
257. Question
Refer to figure 136 below. An “on glidepath” indication is
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Question 258 of 922
258. Question
Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8 degree) indication?
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Question 259 of 922
259. Question
Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5 degrees?
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Question 260 of 922
260. Question
Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?
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Question 261 of 922
261. Question
Refer to figure 162 below. You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates
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Question 262 of 922
262. Question
The primary purpose of runway and identifier lights installed at many airfields is to provide
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Question 263 of 922
263. Question
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?0
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Question 264 of 922
264. Question
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
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Question 265 of 922
265. Question
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
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Question 266 of 922
266. Question
Refer to figure 158 below. With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner’s vortices.
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Question 267 of 922
267. Question
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?
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Question 268 of 922
268. Question
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
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Question 269 of 922
269. Question
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
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Question 270 of 922
270. Question
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
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Question 271 of 922
271. Question
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
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Question 272 of 922
272. Question
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
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Question 273 of 922
273. Question
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
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Question 274 of 922
274. Question
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
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Question 275 of 922
275. Question
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?
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Question 276 of 922
276. Question
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
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Question 277 of 922
277. Question
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
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Question 278 of 922
278. Question
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
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Question 279 of 922
279. Question
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
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Question 280 of 922
280. Question
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?
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Question 281 of 922
281. Question
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
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Question 282 of 922
282. Question
Refer to figure 1 below. Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?
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Question 283 of 922
283. Question
Refer to figure 1 below. What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?
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Question 284 of 922
284. Question
Refer to figure 1 below. The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?
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Question 285 of 922
285. Question
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?
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Question 286 of 922
286. Question
You may cancel an IFR flight plan
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Question 287 of 922
287. Question
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower?
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Question 288 of 922
288. Question
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
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Question 289 of 922
289. Question
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
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Question 290 of 922
290. Question
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?
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Question 291 of 922
291. Question
An abbreviated departure clearance “…CLEARED AS FILED…” will always contain the name
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Question 292 of 922
292. Question
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that
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Question 293 of 922
293. Question
On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED–MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND — SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE — DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain theCorrectIncorrect -
Question 294 of 922
294. Question
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”?
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Question 295 of 922
295. Question
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”
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Question 296 of 922
296. Question
What is the rule or a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?”
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Question 297 of 922
297. Question
A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
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Question 298 of 922
298. Question
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
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Question 299 of 922
299. Question
During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departure
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Question 300 of 922
300. Question
When should you transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
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Question 301 of 922
301. Question
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
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Question 302 of 922
302. Question
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
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Question 303 of 922
303. Question
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
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Question 304 of 922
304. Question
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
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Question 305 of 922
305. Question
What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?
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Question 306 of 922
306. Question
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on
established airways?CorrectIncorrect -
Question 307 of 922
307. Question
During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
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Question 308 of 922
308. Question
While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?
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Question 309 of 922
309. Question
You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should
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Question 310 of 922
310. Question
What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)
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Question 311 of 922
311. Question
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that
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Question 312 of 922
312. Question
During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?
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Question 313 of 922
313. Question
What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?
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Question 314 of 922
314. Question
What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?
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Question 315 of 922
315. Question
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
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Question 316 of 922
316. Question
Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of
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Question 317 of 922
317. Question
When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the
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Question 318 of 922
318. Question
What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?
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Question 319 of 922
319. Question
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
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Question 320 of 922
320. Question
You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530 . At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
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Question 321 of 922
321. Question
You are !n IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?
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Question 322 of 922
322. Question
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?
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Question 323 of 922
323. Question
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?
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