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AIRMETs are issued on a scheduled basis everyCorrectIncorrect
The Hazardous lnflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs ofCorrectIncorrect
Pilots of IFR flights seeking ATC in-flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind thatCorrectIncorrect
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardousCorrectIncorrect
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardousCorrectIncorrect
The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 6,500 feet)?
METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2980CorrectIncorrect
The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 3,800 feet)?
SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000CorrectIncorrect
Interpret the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA.
METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 OO/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42CorrectIncorrect
A ceiling is defined as the height of theCorrectIncorrect
What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?
METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 OO/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42CorrectIncorrect
Interpret this PIREP.
MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430/FL 060/TP C182/SK BKN BL /WX RA/TB MDT.CorrectIncorrect
Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP?
UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA – 04 /WV245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.CorrectIncorrect
Use the TAF to determine the wind shear forecast.
KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG
FM1930 09012KT 1SM-DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=CorrectIncorrect
What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF?
KMEM 091740Z 1818 OOOOOKT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=CorrectIncorrect
When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it isCorrectIncorrect
Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airport’s runway complex?CorrectIncorrect
A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind isCorrectIncorrect
The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within aCorrectIncorrect
A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft at FL 390 to be 300° at 200 knots; temperature -54°C. How would this data be encoded in the FB?CorrectIncorrect
How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast?
FT 6000 9000
What wind direction and speed is represented by the entry 9900+00 for 9,000 feet, on a Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)?CorrectIncorrect
When is the temperature at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over ALB at FL 270?
Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL 270?
Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at FL 270?
When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)? When the windCorrectIncorrect
Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts?CorrectIncorrect
Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) for OKC at 39,000 feet.
FT 3000 9000 12000 24000 39000
OKC 9900 2018+00 2130-06 2361-30 830558CorrectIncorrect
A prognostic chart depicts the conditionsCorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. The U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart at 06Z indicates that central Colorado and southeastern Wyoming can expect
refer to the diagram below The 24-Hour Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart at 06Z indicates that Ohio will likely experience
The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts weather conditionsCorrectIncorrect
Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?CorrectIncorrect
A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?CorrectIncorrect
What determines how icing is reported on a PIREP?CorrectIncorrect
What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500-millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?CorrectIncorrect
Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?CorrectIncorrect
The Surface Analysis Chart depictsCorrectIncorrect
What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?CorrectIncorrect
What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a following 24-hr. period?CorrectIncorrect
If you encounter in-flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?CorrectIncorrect
When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?CorrectIncorrect
What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?
Refer to the diagrams below. What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)
Refer to the diagrams below. What is your position relative to the FLOSI intersection northbound on V213 airway?
Refer to the diagram below. At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?
Refer to the diagram below. What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
Refer to the diagram below. What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?
Refer to the diagrams below. Using an average ground speed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
Refer to the diagrams below. Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY6 at Bradley International?
Refer to the diagrams below. After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative . Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility?
Refer to the diagrams below. At which location or condition does the STELA.STELA1 arrival begin?
Refer to the diagrams below. Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover a proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?
Refer to the diagram below. Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover a proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?
Refer to the diagram below. Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the instrument departure procedure from RWY 9?
Refer to the diagram below. When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is
Refer to the diagram below. What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V-86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs?
Refer to the diagram below. What is the minimum crossing altitude over the BOZEMAN VORTAC for a flight southeast bound on V86?
Refer to the diagram below. At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?
Refer to the diagram below. Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 28R in an aircraft with a V50 of 72 kt.?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 28R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?
Refer to the diagram below. What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway, and the threshold lights?
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?
Destination signs indicateCorrectIncorrect
The “ILS critical area boundary” sign identifies theCorrectIncorrect
The “runway hold position” sign denotesCorrectIncorrect
The “No Entry” sign identifiesCorrectIncorrect
What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?CorrectIncorrect
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
Refer to the diagram below. While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?
Refer to the diagram below. Which sign indicates you are holding short of the ILS critical area?
A runway exit signCorrectIncorrect
“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiwayCorrectIncorrect
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicatesCorrectIncorrect
Within aircraft movement areas, “destination signs” identify theCorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
Refer to the diagram below. What colors are runway holding position signs?
Refer to the diagram below. What colors are runway holding position signs?
Refer to the diagram below. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines areCorrectIncorrect
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?
Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
Which of the following terms describes an airport?CorrectIncorrect
The Glide Path Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions betweenCorrectIncorrect
The term “airport” means an area of land or water that isCorrectIncorrect
Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a private pilot certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?CorrectIncorrect
Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?CorrectIncorrect
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operatingCorrectIncorrect
What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?CorrectIncorrect
To meet instrument experience requirements of CFR Part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what other qualifying information must also be entered?CorrectIncorrect
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?CorrectIncorrect
What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?CorrectIncorrect
How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument proficiency check if no further IFR flights are made?CorrectIncorrect
No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at leastCorrectIncorrect
After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?CorrectIncorrect
To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, in the same category of aircraft:CorrectIncorrect
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar asCorrectIncorrect
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?CorrectIncorrect
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA the pilot shouldCorrectIncorrect
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI willCorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. An “on glidepath” indication is
Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8 degree) indication?
Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5 degrees?
Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?
Refer to the diagram below. You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates
The primary purpose of runway and identifier lights installed at many airfields is to provideCorrectIncorrect
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?0CorrectIncorrect
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?CorrectIncorrect
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff becauseCorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner’s vortices.
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?CorrectIncorrect
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?CorrectIncorrect
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?CorrectIncorrect
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?CorrectIncorrect
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?CorrectIncorrect
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?CorrectIncorrect
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained fromCorrectIncorrect
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?CorrectIncorrect
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?CorrectIncorrect
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?CorrectIncorrect
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies thatCorrectIncorrect
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate thatCorrectIncorrect
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?CorrectIncorrect
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?CorrectIncorrect
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?
Refer to the diagram below. What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?
Refer to the diagram below. The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?CorrectIncorrect
You may cancel an IFR flight planCorrectIncorrect
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower?CorrectIncorrect
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?CorrectIncorrect
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)CorrectIncorrect
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?CorrectIncorrect
An abbreviated departure clearance “…CLEARED AS FILED…” will always contain the nameCorrectIncorrect
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates thatCorrectIncorrect
On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED–MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND — SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE — DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain theCorrectIncorrect
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”?CorrectIncorrect
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”CorrectIncorrect
What is the rule or a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?”CorrectIncorrect
A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized toCorrectIncorrect
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?CorrectIncorrect
During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departureCorrectIncorrect
When should you transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?CorrectIncorrect
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?CorrectIncorrect
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?CorrectIncorrect
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?CorrectIncorrect
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of betweenCorrectIncorrect
What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?CorrectIncorrect
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on
During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?CorrectIncorrect
While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?CorrectIncorrect
You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You shouldCorrectIncorrect
What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)CorrectIncorrect
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means thatCorrectIncorrect
During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?CorrectIncorrect
What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?CorrectIncorrect
What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?CorrectIncorrect
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed whenCorrectIncorrect
Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient ofCorrectIncorrect
When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the
What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?CorrectIncorrect
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)CorrectIncorrect
You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530 . At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?CorrectIncorrect
You are !n IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?CorrectIncorrect
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?CorrectIncorrect
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?CorrectIncorrect
While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight underCorrectIncorrect
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?CorrectIncorrect
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with
two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.CorrectIncorrect
To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you needCorrectIncorrect
A pilot may satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft by logging within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flightCorrectIncorrect
What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?CorrectIncorrect
What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?CorrectIncorrect
An instrument rated pilot who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilotCorrectIncorrect
A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?CorrectIncorrect
How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft? Within the previous 6 calendar months, loggedCorrectIncorrect
Which additional IFR experience is required for you to meet the recent flight experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?
Your present instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar months is
1. three hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator.
2. two instrument approaches in an airplane.CorrectIncorrect
A pilot plans an IFR flight on July 10 of this year. In order to meet IFR currency requirements the pilot must haveCorrectIncorrect
Which additional instrument experience, within the preceding 6 calendar months, is required to meet the requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR if you already have 3 hours in an instrument simulator (including holding, intercepting, and tracking courses) and two instrument approaches in an airplane?CorrectIncorrect
To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross-country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at leastCorrectIncorrect
Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?CorrectIncorrect
What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?CorrectIncorrect
A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at leastCorrectIncorrect
You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single-engine airplane with a 25-mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which ratings(s)?CorrectIncorrect
Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR Part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?CorrectIncorrect
The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated underCorrectIncorrect
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot mustCorrectIncorrect
What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?CorrectIncorrect
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?CorrectIncorrect
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace extends fromCorrectIncorrect
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?CorrectIncorrect
Class G airspace is that airspace whereCorrectIncorrect
MCAs are established toCorrectIncorrect
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?CorrectIncorrect
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. You are cleared to land on RWY 16L at Eugene Mahlon Sweet Field. As you break out of the clouds, you are lined up with the white lights down the center of the runway, which lets you know that you
Refer to the diagram below. What is the slope of RWY 9?
Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on runway 4, the compass and heading indicator should read a heading of about
Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on runway 18, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about
Refer to the diagram below. What is the actual heading of the north runway at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH) airport?
Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on RWY 27, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:CorrectIncorrect
What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?CorrectIncorrect
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?CorrectIncorrect
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?CorrectIncorrect
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot shouldCorrectIncorrect
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency that causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?CorrectIncorrect
Your transponder is inoperative. What are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?CorrectIncorrect
In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?CorrectIncorrect
Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?CorrectIncorrect
When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?CorrectIncorrect
When is an IFR flight plan required?CorrectIncorrect
Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?CorrectIncorrect
When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?CorrectIncorrect
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?CorrectIncorrect
What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?CorrectIncorrect
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)CorrectIncorrect
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?CorrectIncorrect
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be usedCorrectIncorrect
You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?CorrectIncorrect
Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?CorrectIncorrect
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?CorrectIncorrect
When may you obtain a contact approach?CorrectIncorrect
A Precision Runway Monitor (PRM), approach requiresCorrectIncorrect
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) isCorrectIncorrect
What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?CorrectIncorrect
The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?CorrectIncorrect
RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?CorrectIncorrect
If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?CorrectIncorrect
If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 RVR?CorrectIncorrect
If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATCCorrectIncorrect
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach actionCorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. During the LOG RWY 35 missed approach at Duncan/Halliburton Field (DUG), what would be the appropriate entry for the
Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?CorrectIncorrect
If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated uponCorrectIncorrect
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot isCorrectIncorrect
How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?
Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the left of the ILS course?
Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?
Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the right of the ILS course?CorrectIncorrect
Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?CorrectIncorrect
Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?CorrectIncorrect
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VSI in sight?CorrectIncorrect
Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot isCorrectIncorrect
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be usedCorrectIncorrect
When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?CorrectIncorrect
The rate of descent on the glide slope depends onCorrectIncorrect
The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slopeCorrectIncorrect
During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope willCorrectIncorrect
A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?CorrectIncorrect
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in Class G airspace?CorrectIncorrect
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?CorrectIncorrect
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours?CorrectIncorrect
What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours?CorrectIncorrect
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours?CorrectIncorrect
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,CorrectIncorrect
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3,000 ft. scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,CorrectIncorrect
When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?CorrectIncorrect
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant trueCorrectIncorrect
While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?CorrectIncorrect
Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?CorrectIncorrect
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?CorrectIncorrect
While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?CorrectIncorrect
While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on a glide slope?CorrectIncorrect
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?CorrectIncorrect
Assume this clearance is received:
“CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.”
When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Refer to the diagram below. you receive the ATC clearance: “…HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL LEFT TURNS…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL LEFT TURNS….” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE ONE FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…” You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?CorrectIncorrect
What timing procedure should be used when Performing a holding pattern at a VOR?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagrams below. What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 105 knots ground speed?
Refer to the diagrams below. With a 15 knot headwind while flying the ILS Rwy 9 at RAL with 90 knots, you expect to set power for a
To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?CorrectIncorrect
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed withinCorrectIncorrect
When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can beCorrectIncorrect
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?CorrectIncorrect
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller-driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?CorrectIncorrect
The standard IFR climb gradient isCorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…”
How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?CorrectIncorrect
Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?CorrectIncorrect
Aircraft approach categories are based onCorrectIncorrect
How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?
Refer to the diagram below. During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?
Refer to the diagram below. The symbol on the plan view of the ILS or LOC RWY 13 procedure at DSM represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
Refer to the diagram below. During the ILS RWY 13 procedures at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is
Refer to the diagram below. During the approach to DSM before you can begin the ILS RWY 13 procedure, the glide slope fails and you are cleared for the LOC RWY 13 at DSM. What altitude minimum applies?CorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. The final approach fix for the ILS RWY 24R is located at
Refer to the diagram below. The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at
During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence toCorrectIncorrect
When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?CorrectIncorrect
The primary reason single pilot operations in reduced visibility on an instrument approach procedure are made more difficult than multi-crew operations is that the pilot mustCorrectIncorrect
Refer to the diagram below. Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is
Refer to the diagram below. At what minimum altitude should you cross RAMKE intersection during the S-LA RWY 6 approach at ROA?
Refer to the diagram below. The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 procedure is
When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?CorrectIncorrect
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?CorrectIncorrect
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?CorrectIncorrect
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040
BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 OOOOOKT
What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure?CorrectIncorrect
When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?CorrectIncorrect
If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be theCorrectIncorrect
What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?CorrectIncorrect
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?CorrectIncorrect
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?CorrectIncorrect
If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis, you may have symptoms ofCorrectIncorrect
Which is not a type of hypoxia?