ifr all questions

1. Question

AIRMETs are issued on a scheduled basis every

15 minutes after the hour only.
15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.
six hours.

2. Question

The Hazardous lnflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of

SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisories.
SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Wind Shear Advisories, and Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW).
Wind Shear Advisories, Radar Weather Reports, SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).

3. Question

Pilots of IFR flights seeking ATC in-flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind that

ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service.
circumnavigating severe weather can only be accommodated in the en route areas away from terminals because of congestion.
ATC Narrow Band Radar does not provide the controller with weather intensity capability.

4. Question

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous

particularly to light aircraft.
to all aircraft.
only to light aircraft operations.

5. Question

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous

particularly to large commercial operators.
to all aircraft regardless of size or operating environment.
particularly to light aircraft.

6. Question

The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 6,500 feet)?

METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2980

5,180 feet.
5,800 feet.
5,880 feet.

7. Question

The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 3,800 feet)?

SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000

500 feet.
1,700 feet.
2,500 feet.

8. Question

Interpret the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA.

METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 OO/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42

The wind is variable from 290° to 360°.
Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31.
Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.

9. Question

A ceiling is defined as the height of the

highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.
lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast.
lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.

10. Question

What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?

METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 OO/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42

Runway 31 ceiling is 2,700 feet.
Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.
Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.

11. Question

Interpret this PIREP.

MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430/FL 060/TP C182/SK BKN BL /WX RA/TB MDT.

Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward.
FL 60,000, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind.
At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.

12. Question

Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP?

UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA – 04 /WV245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.

64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000 feet. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172.
Reported by a Cessna 172, turbulence and light rime icing in climb to 8,000 ft.
63 nautical miles on the 64 degree radial from Oklahoma City, thunderstorm and light rain at 1522 UTC.

13. Question

Use the TAF to determine the wind shear forecast.

TAF

KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG

FM1930 09012KT 1SM-DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=

Wind shear from the surface to 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
Wind shear at 500 feet MSL from 270° at 50 KT.
Wind shear at 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.

14. Question

What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF?

KMEM 091740Z 1818 OOOOOKT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=

Calm.
Unknown.
Not recorded.

15. Question

When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is

expressed as 6PSM.
expressed as P6SM.
omitted from the report.

16. Question

Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airport’s runway complex?

Area Forecast (FA).
Weather Depiction Charts.
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).

17. Question

A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is

3 knots or less.
6 knots or less.
9 knots or less.

18. Question

The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a

5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.
5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.

19. Question

A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft at FL 390 to be 300° at 200 knots; temperature -54°C. How would this data be encoded in the FB?

300054.
809954.
309954.

20. Question

How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast?

FT 6000 9000

0737-04 1043-10

3°C.
10°C.
7°C.

21. Question

What wind direction and speed is represented by the entry 9900+00 for 9,000 feet, on a Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)?

Light and variable; less than 5 knots.
Vortex winds exceeding 200 knots.
Light and variable; less than 10 knots.

22. Question

When is the temperature at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)?

When the temperature is standard for that altitude.
For the 3,000-foot altitude (level) or when the level is within 2,500 feet of station elevation.
Only when the winds are omitted for that altitude (level).

23. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over ALB at FL 270?

270° magnetic at 97 knots; ISA -4°C.
260° true at 110 knots; ISA +5°C.
275° true at 97 knots; ISA +4°C.

24. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL 270?

260° magnetic at 93 knots; ISA +7°C.
280° true at 113 knots; ISA +3°C.
255° true at 93 knots; ISA +6°C.

25. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at FL 270?

265° true; 100 knots; ISA +3°C.
270° true; 110 knots; ISA +5°C.
260° magnetic; 100 knots; ISA – 5°C.

26. Question

When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)? When the wind

is less than 5 knots.
is less than 10 knots.
at the altitude is within 1,500 feet of the station elevation.

27. Question

Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts?

Magnetic direction and knots.
Magnetic direction and MPH.
True direction and knots.

28. Question

Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) for OKC at 39,000 feet.

FT 3000 9000 12000 24000 39000

OKC 9900 2018+00 2130-06 2361-30 830558

Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58°C.
Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58°C.
Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58°C.

29. Question

A prognostic chart depicts the conditions

existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.
which presently exist from the 1,000-millibar through the 700-millibar level.
forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.

30. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart at 06Z indicates that central Colorado and southeastern Wyoming can expect

moderate or greater turbulence from to FL 100 to FL 180.
moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.
no turbulence is indicated.

31. Question

refer to the diagram below The 24-Hour Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart at 06Z indicates that Ohio will likely experience

ceilings less than 1,000 feet, visibility less than 3 miles.
clear sky and visibility greater than 6 miles.
ceilings 1,000 to 3,000 feet and visibility 3 to 5 miles.

32. Question

The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts weather conditions

that are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart.
as they existed at the time the chart was prepared.
that existed at the time shown on the chart which is about 3 hours before the chart is received.

33. Question

Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?

Conditions existing at the time of the observation.
Interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations.
Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.

34. Question

A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?

Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.
The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.
Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs.

35. Question

What determines how icing is reported on a PIREP?

Type of ice.
Thickness of ice.
Rate of accumulation.

36. Question

What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500-millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?

Winds aloft at FL 180 generally flow across the height contours.
Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated.
Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.

37. Question

Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
Convective outlook.
Radar Summary Chart.

38. Question

The Surface Analysis Chart depicts

actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.
frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission.
actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.

39. Question

What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?

It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours.
It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.
It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 MB).

40. Question

What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a following 24-hr. period?

General thunderstorm activity.
A severe weather watch bulletin.
When forecast conditions are expected to continue beyond the valid period.

41. Question

If you encounter in-flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?

Light, moderate, severe, extreme.
Trace, light, moderate, severe.
Few, light, moderate, severe.

42. Question

When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?

Every 12 hours as required.
Every 24 hours as required.
Unscheduled and issued as required.

43. Question

What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?

Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.
Levels of widespread cloud coverage.
Winds and temperatures aloft.

44. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?

Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.
Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available.
Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.

45. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)

425 feet per minute.
530 feet per minute.
637 feet per minute.

46. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. What is your position relative to the FLOSI intersection northbound on V213 airway?

West of V213 and approaching the FLOSI intersection.
East of V213 and approaching the FLOSI intersection.
West of V213 and past the FLOSI intersection.

47. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?

When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude.
When 3 minutes (at 90 knots ground speed) have expired or reaching 373 feet MSL, whichever occurs first.
Upon reaching 373 feet AGL.

48. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?

3,000 feet MSL.
1,800 feet MSL.
1,080 feet MSL.

49. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?

173 feet MSL.
200 feet AGL.
270 feet MSL.

50. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Using an average ground speed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?

395 feet per minute.
480 feet per minute.
555 feet per minute.

51. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY6 at Bradley International?

HIRL, REIL, and VASI.
HIRL and VASI.
ALSF2 and HIRL.

52. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative . Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility?

DH 424/24.
No adjustments are required.
DH 374/24.

53. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. At which location or condition does the STELA.STELA1 arrival begin?

54. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover a proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?

L-2
L-7
L-13

55. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover a proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?

When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact.
At STAKK intersection.
Over the BOZEMAN VOR.

56. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the instrument departure procedure from RWY 9?

250 feet per minute.
475 feet per minute.
968 feet per minute.

57. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is

10,200 feet.
10,500 feet.
8,500 feet.

58. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V-86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs?

74,500 feet MSL.
17,000 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.

59. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the minimum crossing altitude over the BOZEMAN VORTAC for a flight southeast bound on V86?

8,500 feet MSL.
10,200 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL.

60. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?

11,800 feet MSL.
10,800 feet MSL.
10,200 feet MSL.

61. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 28R in an aircraft with a V50 of 72 kt.?

A
B
C

62. Question

Refer to the diagram below. How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 28R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?

Three
Four
Five

63. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway, and the threshold lights?

No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.
Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.
Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

64. Question

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.
Red chevron marks in the non-landing position of the runway.

65. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

66. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?

250 feet.
500 feet.
750 feet.

67. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?

1,000 feet.
500 feet.
250 feet.

68. Question

Destination signs indicate

The taxiway a pilot is on.
The runway a pilot is on.
The direction to takeoff runways.

69. Question

The “ILS critical area boundary” sign identifies the

Area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
Edge of the U.S. critical area.
Exit boundary for the runway protected area.

70. Question

The “runway hold position” sign denotes

an entrance to a taxiway from runway.
an entrance to a runway from a taxiway.
an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway.

71. Question

The “No Entry” sign identifies

the exit boundary for the runway protected area.
an area that does not continue beyond intersection.
paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

72. Question

What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

Defines direction and designation of runway when exiting a taxiway.
Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway.
Defines a mandatory exit point from the runway during Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).

73. Question

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Indicates direction to take-off runway

74. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

75. Question

Refer to the diagram below. While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

76. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which sign indicates you are holding short of the ILS critical area?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

77. Question

A runway exit sign

points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway.
designates an intersection of two or more runways.
shows the direction to exit from a named taxiway onto a runway.

78. Question

“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiway

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
allows an aircraft permission onto the runway

79. Question

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates

direction to the take-off runway.
designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
designation area direction of exit taxiway from runway.

80. Question

Within aircraft movement areas, “destination signs” identify the

runway on which an aircraft is located.
direction to the takeoff runway.
entrance to the runway from a taxiway.

81. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

yellow lettering with a black background.
white lettering with a red background.
black lettering with a yellow background.

82. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What colors are runway holding position signs?

Location sign.
Mandatory instruction sign.
Direction sign.

83. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What colors are runway holding position signs?

White with a red background.
Red with a white background.
Yellow with a black background.

84. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are

white, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
yellow, and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

85. Question

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

86. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?

5
6
7

87. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?

4
5
6

88. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?

4
5
6

89. Question

Which of the following terms describes an airport?

An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
An area of land that is used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft, but does not include buildings since not all airports have buildings.
All runway, taxiway, and ramp areas created for use by aircraft.

90. Question

The Glide Path Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between

The final approach fix and the missed approach point.
Decision altitude and the runway threshold.
Any initial approach fix(es) and the final approach fix.

91. Question

The term “airport” means an area of land or water that is

Scheduled for use as an airport.
Used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft and includes taxiways and other ground movement areas.
Used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.

92. Question

Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a private pilot certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?

Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter.
No. You must hold either an unrestricted airline transport pilot-airplane certificate or an airplane instrument rating.
No. However, you may do so if you hold an airline transport pilot-airplane certificate limited to VFR.

93. Question

Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?

When operating in Class E airspace.
For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.

94. Question

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating

under IFR in positive control airspace.
under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace.
in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.

95. Question

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?

All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions.
All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.
Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.

96. Question

To meet instrument experience requirements of CFR Part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what other qualifying information must also be entered?

Location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot.
Number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight.
Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed.

97. Question

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?

All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.
Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

98. Question

What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?

The flight must remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing.
The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot.
The ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.

99. Question

How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument proficiency check if no further IFR flights are made?

90 days.
6 calendar months.
12 calendar months.

100. Question

No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.
six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions.
three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours.

101. Question

After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?

6 months.
90 days.
12 months.

102. Question

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, in the same category of aircraft:

holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems, and six instrument approaches.
six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.
6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft, and six instrument approaches.

103. Question

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

white and the far bar as red.
red and the far bar as white.
white and the far bar as white.

104. Question

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.
If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

105. Question

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA the pilot should

start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.
continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.
level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

106. Question

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will

both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath.
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath.
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.

107. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An “on glidepath” indication is

8
10
11

108. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8 degree) indication?

9
10
11

109. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5 degrees?

10
11
12

110. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?

10
11
12

111. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates

you are on the centerline for your assigned runway.
you are too low on the approach.
you have lined up with the wrong runway.

112. Question

The primary purpose of runway and identifier lights installed at many airfields is to provide

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.
rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.

113. Question

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?0

MALSR.
HIRL.
REIL.

114. Question

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

Direct headwind.
Direct tailwind.
Light quartering tailwind.

115. Question

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed.
the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
C. of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

116. Question

Refer to the diagram below. With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner’s vortices.

The winds will push the vortices southeast of your takeoff path.
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

117. Question

What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?

The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength.
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

118. Question

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point..
At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
Beyond the jet's touchdown point.

119. Question

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?

Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.
Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.

120. Question

What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline.
Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing.
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.

121. Question

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
Only when advised by ATC.

122. Question

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?

Reporting VFR conditions to ARTCC.
Obtaining an amended clearance authorizing VFR flight.
Seeing and avoiding other aircraft.

123. Question

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from

the ATIS broadcast.
the FSS.
Notices to Airmen (Class II).

124. Question

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts.
To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.
To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

125. Question

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?

Notices to Airmen Publication.
FAA FSS.
Chart Supplement.

126. Question

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?

Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) NOTAMs.
Chart Supplement and FDC NOTAMs.
Chart Supplement and Distant (D) NOTAMs.

127. Question

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that

the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

128. Question

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

the in-flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace.
the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, D, or E airspace.
an IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.

129. Question

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.

130. Question

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

Current NOTAMs (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
All current NOTAMs only.
Pointer NOTAMs and FDC NOTAMs.

131. Question

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
The point of first intended landing.

132. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?

DME, and airborne radar.
DME, transponder, and type of altimeter.
DME, transponder, and RNAV.

133. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?

Altitude for first leg.
Altitude for first leg and highest altitude.
Highest altitude.

134. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?

Total fuel required for the flight.
Total usable fuel on board.
The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45-minute reserve.

135. Question

What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?

A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.
A reporting point defined by the intersection of two VOR radials.
A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals.

136. Question

You may cancel an IFR flight plan

at any time as long as you advise ATC.
only in an emergency.
if in VMC outside Class A airspace.

137. Question

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower?

The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight.
You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility.
Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.

138. Question

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

139. Question

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)

Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

140. Question

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

DP or transition name and altitude to maintain.
Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.
Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

141. Question

An abbreviated departure clearance “…CLEARED AS FILED…” will always contain the name

and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.

142. Question

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

143. Question

On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED–MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND — SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE — DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

departure control frequency.
transportation costs.
destination airport and route.

144. Question

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”?

The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

145. Question

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”

The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach. procedure.
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.
The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

146. Question

What is the rule or a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?”

The pilot is required to accept the controller's clearance in visual meteorological conditions.
The pilot must accept the clearance if the pavement is dry and the stopping distance is adequate.
The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

147. Question

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC
climb to, but not descend from, 4,000 feet without further ATC clearance.
use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.

148. Question

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

When visibility is less than 1 mile.
When parallel runways are in use.
When departing from a runway intersection.

149. Question

During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departure

before entering the clouds.
when the tower instructs the change.
upon reaching the traffic pattern altitude.

150. Question

When should you transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?

Only when ATC requests Mode C.
At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
When passing 12,500 feet MSL.

151. Question

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?

Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.
Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute.

152. Question

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

As rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached.
1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude.
As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

153. Question

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.
Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

154. Question

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute..
500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.
1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.

155. Question

What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?

Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar has been lost.

156. Question

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on
established airways?

Fixes selected to define the route.
There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
All the changeover points.

157. Question

During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

40 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose.
20 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose.
Straight ahead.

158. Question

While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?

Continue as directed.
Advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.
Deviate as needed, then rejoin the approach.

159. Question

You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should

turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.
continue as assigned and query ATC.
turn inbound and join the final approach course.

160. Question

What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)

Reduce TAS to 160 knots and maintain until advised by ATC.
Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC.
Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.

161. Question

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that

You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.
You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

162. Question

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?

Set transponder to code 1200.
Resume normal position reporting.
Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.

163. Question

What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
Radar service is terminated.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

164. Question

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?

Separation from all aircraft.
Position and altitude of all traffic within2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude.
Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

165. Question

While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when

ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.
ground speed changes 10 MPH or more.

166. Question

Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of

500 feet per minute.
400 feet per nautical mile
200 feet per nautical mile

167. Question

When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the
destination?

Immediately after canceling the flight plan.
When advised by ARTCC.
Before entering Class D airspace.

168. Question

What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?

Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
Emergency handling is required to the nearest usable airport.
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

169. Question

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)

Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.

170. Question

You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530 . At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.

171. Question

You are !n IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.
Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions.
Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions.

172. Question

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA's along the clearance route.

173. Question

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival.
Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.

174. Question

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under

VFR and land as soon as practicable.
IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.
VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.

175. Question

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?

Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made.
Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed.
Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

176. Question

What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with
two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.

Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
Continue the flight as cleared, no report is required.
Continue the approach and request a VOR approach.

177. Question

To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft.
six hours in the same category aircraft.
six hours in the same category aircraft, and at least 3 of the 6 hours in actual IFR conditions.

178. Question

A pilot may satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft by logging within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems.
six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or 6 hours in simulated IFR conditions; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved.
6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions, including at least six instrument approaches. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

179. Question

What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?

The approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.
At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown.
At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.

180. Question

What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?

A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months.
A minimum of six instrument approaches, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months.
A minimum of six instrument approaches in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the preceding 6 calendar months.

181. Question

An instrument rated pilot who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot

completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA-designated examiner.
passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector.
6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

182. Question

A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?

December 31, this year.
June 30, next year.
July 31, this year.

183. Question

How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft? Within the previous 6 calendar months, logged

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems.
six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved.
6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

184. Question

Which additional IFR experience is required for you to meet the recent flight experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?

Your present instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar months is

1. three hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator.

2. two instrument approaches in an airplane.

Three hours of simulated or actual instrument flight time in a helicopter and two instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter.
Four instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved airplane flight simulator or training device.
Three instrument approaches in an airplane.

185. Question

A pilot plans an IFR flight on July 10 of this year. In order to meet IFR currency requirements the pilot must have

performed his or her currency tasks between January 10 and July 10.
performed his or her currency tasks between February 10 and July 10 with none of it before February 10.
completed an IPC within the last year.

186. Question

Which additional instrument experience, within the preceding 6 calendar months, is required to meet the requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR if you already have 3 hours in an instrument simulator (including holding, intercepting, and tracking courses) and two instrument approaches in an airplane?

Another two instrument approaches in an airplane.
Another four instrument approaches in the same category and class.
Another 3 hours of actual or simulated instrument flight time in the same category and class.

187. Question

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross-country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least

a Category II pilot authorization.
a First-Class Medical certificate.
a Commercial Pilot Certification with an instrument rating.

188. Question

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?

That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.
The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

189. Question

What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?

The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 nautical miles (NM).
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

190. Question

A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least

a type rating.
a first-class medical certificate.
an instrument rating in the same category of aircraft.

191. Question

You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single-engine airplane with a 25-mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which ratings(s)?

A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single-engine land rating.
A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single-engine and instrument (airplane) rating.
A Private Pilot Certificate with a single-engine land and instrument airplane rating.

192. Question

Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR Part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?

Owner.
Operator.
Pilot-in-command.

193. Question

The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under

IFR.
VFR.
DVFR.

194. Question

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport.
list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.

195. Question

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet.
Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction.
After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

196. Question

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace.
Class A, special use airspace, Class D, and Class E.
Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B, and Class C.

197. Question

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace extends from

18,000 feet to and including FL 450.
18,000 feet to and including FL 600.
12,500 feet to and including FL 600.

198. Question

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.
The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL where designated.

199. Question

Class G airspace is that airspace where

ATC does not control air traffic.
ATC controls only IFR flights.
the minimum visibility for VFR flights is 3 miles.

200. Question

MCAs are established to

prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.
separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities.

201. Question

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way communications and Mode C transponder.
Two-way communications.
Transponder and DME.

202. Question

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

Surface to 700 feet AGL.
1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

203. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You are cleared to land on RWY 16L at Eugene Mahlon Sweet Field. As you break out of the clouds, you are lined up with the white lights down the center of the runway, which lets you know that you

are on course and lined up correctly.
are off course.
should recheck the winds prior to landing.

204. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the slope of RWY 9?

0.4% up.
0.4% down.
0.3% down.

205. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on runway 4, the compass and heading indicator should read a heading of about

040 degrees.
050 degrees.
055 degrees.

206. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on runway 18, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about

180 degrees.
185 degrees.
175 degrees.

207. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the actual heading of the north runway at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH) airport?

0.3%
003.6 degrees.
360 degrees.

208. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on RWY 27, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about

270 degrees.
275 degrees.
265 degrees.

209. Question

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:

all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
an alternate airport and adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft's takeoff and landing data.

210. Question

What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?

Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.
Private pilot with instrument rating.
Private pilot with appropriate category, class, and instrument ratings.

211. Question

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

When priority has been given.
Any time an emergency occurs.
When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

212. Question

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

213. Question

During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should

not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.

214. Question

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency that causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

Deviate as necessary and squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
Do not deviate until an amended ATC clearance is received and separation from other aircraft is assured.
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible and obtain an amended ATC clearance.

215. Question

Your transponder is inoperative. What are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?

The entry into Class D is prohibited.
Continue the flight as planned.
Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.

216. Question

In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.
Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder.
An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.

217. Question

Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?

A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.
A VOR receiver with DME.
A 4096 code transponder.

218. Question

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

When operating in the Class E airspace.
When operating in a Class A airspace.
When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.

219. Question

When is an IFR flight plan required?

When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.
In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

220. Question

Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?

Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.
Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace.
Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.

221. Question

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

Flight through an MOA.
Flight into an ADIZ.
Flight into Class A airspace.

222. Question

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

223. Question

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.
You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.
You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

224. Question

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)

3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

225. Question

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.
The pilot must request a visual approach and report having the field in sight; ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist.
Anytime the pilot reports the field in sight, ATC may clear the pilot for a contact approach; for a visual approach, the pilot must advise that the approach can be made under VFR conditions.

226. Question

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

in lieu of conducting a SIAP.
if assigned by ATC and will facilitate the approach.
in lieu of a visual approach.

227. Question

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

A ground visibility of at least 2 SM.
A flight visibility of at least 1/2 NM.
Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.

228. Question

Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?

The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.
The controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.
The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.

229. Question

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot.
When ATC advises, "Radar service terminated; resume own navigation?

230. Question

When may you obtain a contact approach?

ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist or you report the runway in sight and are clear of clouds.
ATC may assign a contact approach if you are below the clouds and the visibility is at least 1 mile.
ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile.

231. Question

A Precision Runway Monitor (PRM), approach requires

simultaneously monitoring two frequencies.
special training to monitor two ILS receivers simultaneously.
tracking performance parameters at the decision point.

232. Question

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approaches to two runways.
a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single runway.

233. Question

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?

The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

234. Question

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

235. Question

RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

236. Question

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.
As an RVR of 2,400 feet.
As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

237. Question

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 RVR?

A ground visibility of 1/2 NM.
A slant range visibility of 2,400 feet for the final approach segment of the published approach procedure.
A ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

238. Question

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.
Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures.
Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.

239. Question

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action

execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climb to the initial approach altitude.
climb to the published circling minimums then proceed direct to the final approach fix.
make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

240. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the LOG RWY 35 missed approach at Duncan/Halliburton Field (DUG), what would be the appropriate entry for the

Direct
Teardrop
Parallel

241. Question

Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway.
Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.

242. Question

If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

arrival at the DH on the glide slope.
arrival at the MDA.
expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

243. Question

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.

244. Question

How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOG frequency box.
LOC/DME are indicated on en route low altitude frequency box.
LOC/DME frequencies available in the Aeronautical Information Manual.

245. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?

21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.
28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

246. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the left of the ILS course?

Top diagram.
Middle diagram.
Bottom diagram.

247. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?

Top diagram.
Middle diagram.
Bottom diagram.

248. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the right of the ILS course?

Top diagram.
Middle diagram.
Bottom diagram.

249. Question

Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable.
Request another approach appropriate to the equipment that is usable.
Raise the minimums a total of that required by each component that is unusable.

250. Question

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may be substituted for the outer marker.
LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for either the outer or middle marker.

251. Question

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VSI in sight?

The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.
The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot's discretion.

252. Question

Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

permitted to continue the approach and descend to the DH.
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
required to immediately begin the prescribed missed approach procedure

253. Question

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used

in lieu of the OM.
in lieu of visibility requirements.
to determine distance from TDZ.

254. Question

When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?

Higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear 1s encountered, then a decrease.
Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase.
Higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase.

255. Question

The rate of descent on the glide slope depends on

true airspeed.
indicated airspeed.
ground speed.

256. Question

The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

must be increased if the ground speed is decreased.
will remain constant if the indicated airspeed remains constant.
must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased.

257. Question

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will

remain the same regardless of groundspeed.
increase as the groundspeed increases.
decrease as the groundspeed increases.

258. Question

A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 1,000 feet.

259. Question

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in Class G airspace?

3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontally 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
1 mile; above clear clouds; horizontally clear of clouds; below clear of clouds.
1 mile; above 500 feet; horizontally 1,000; below 500 feet.

260. Question

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?

5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.

261. Question

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours?

2,000 feet; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

262. Question

What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours?

1 mile; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.

263. Question

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours?

1 mile; above 2,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
3 miles; above clear clouds; horizontal clear of clouds; below 500 feet.
1 mile; above clear clouds; horizontal clear of clouds; below clear of clouds.

264. Question

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,

and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

265. Question

During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3,000 ft. scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,

and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

266. Question

When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°.
Drift corrections should be made in 5° increments after passing the outer marker.
Drift corrections should be made in 10° increments after passing the outer marker.

267. Question

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true

When ground speed decreases, rate of descent must increase.
When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope.

268. Question

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

Turn outbound on the final approach course, execute a procedure turn, and inform ATC.
Turn inbound and execute the missed approach procedure at the outer marker if approach clearance has not been received.
Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.

269. Question

Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?

PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Increases, then decreases to approach speed.
PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.
PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, then increased; VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

270. Question

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

Pitch and power.
Power only.
Pitch only.

271. Question

While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

272. Question

While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on a glide slope?

Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.
Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope.

273. Question

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.

274. Question

Assume this clearance is received:
“CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.”
When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix.
After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right

275. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Parallel only.
Direct only.
Teardrop only.

276. Question

Refer to the diagram below. you receive the ATC clearance: “…HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL LEFT TURNS…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Parallel only.
Direct only.
Teardrop only.

277. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Teardrop only.
Direct only.
Parallel only.

278. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL LEFT TURNS….” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Parallel only.
Direct only.
Teardrop only.

279. Question

Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Parallel or teardrop.
Parallel only.
Direct only.

280. Question

Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Teardrop only.
Parallel only.
Direct only.

281. Question

Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Teardrop only.
Parallel only.
Direct only.

282. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE ONE FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…” You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?

1 teardrop.
2; direct.
1; direct.

283. Question

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

Abeam the holding fix, or wings level whichever occurs last.
When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.
When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

284. Question

What timing procedure should be used when Performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.
Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound.
Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.

285. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 105 knots ground speed?

520 feet per minute.
520 feet per NM.
557 feet per minute.

286. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. With a 15 knot headwind while flying the ILS Rwy 9 at RAL with 90 knots, you expect to set power for a

318 feet per minute rate of descent.
398 feet per minute rate of descent.
478 feet per minute rate of descent.

287. Question

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

230 knots.
200 knots.
210 knots.

288. Question

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
a radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.
1O knots of the specified holding speed.

289. Question

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be

at pilot's discretion.
only in an emergency.
only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.

290. Question

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

265 knots.
175 knots.
200 knots.

291. Question

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller-driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

230 knots.
265 knots.
200 knots.

292. Question

The standard IFR climb gradient is

500 feet per NM.
400 feet per NM.
200 feet per NM.

293. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…”

1; teardrop entry.
2; direct entry.
1; direct entry.

294. Question

How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

All fixes that are labeled "IAF" which are depicted on the plan view.
Any fix depicted which is located on the final approach course.
Any fix depicted which is located on the final approach course prior to the final approach fix.

295. Question

Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?

Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the leader facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.
Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure.
Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.

296. Question

Aircraft approach categories are based on

certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.

297. Question

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?

The runway has a visual approach slope indicator (VASI).
The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than 3/4 SM.
The approach chart has a visual descent point (VDP) published.

298. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?

70 feet MSL.
57 feet MSL.
44 feet MSL.

299. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?

1,420 feet.
1,380 feet.
1,121 feet.

300. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The symbol on the plan view of the ILS or LOC RWY 13 procedure at DSM represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Des Moines VORTAC.
CLIVE outer marker.
Des Moines International Airport.

301. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the ILS RWY 13 procedures at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

2,548 feet MSL.
2,600 feet MSL.
3,500 feet MSL.

302. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the approach to DSM before you can begin the ILS RWY 13 procedure, the glide slope fails and you are cleared for the LOC RWY 13 at DSM. What altitude minimum applies?

1,420 feet.
1,380 feet.
1,121 feet.

303. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The final approach fix for the ILS RWY 24R is located at

MERCE intersection.
Glide Slope Intercept (lightning bolt).
JETSA intersection.

304. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at

RIIVR intersection.
Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt).
JETSA intersection/locator outer marker.

305. Question

During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

minimum altitude shown on the IAP.
terrain contour information.
natural and man-made reference point information.

306. Question

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.
The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

307. Question

The primary reason single pilot operations in reduced visibility on an instrument approach procedure are made more difficult than multi-crew operations is that the pilot must

continue to fly by instruments while attempting to acquire a visual reference for the runway.
multitask, coordinating the operation of the flight controls, avionics, and radio equipment.
manage a more complex aircraft than those commonly used in multi-crew operations.

308. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is

7,080 feet MSL.
7,977 feet MSL.
8,000 feet MSL.

309. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At what minimum altitude should you cross RAMKE intersection during the S-LA RWY 6 approach at ROA?

2,720 MSL.
4,300 MSL.
1,780 MSL.

310. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 procedure is

2:33 from PECAT.
200 feet AGL.
1,081 feet MSL.

311. Question

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
You may descend immediately to published glide slope interception altitude.
Only after you are established on the final approach unless informed otherwise by ATC.

312. Question

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.
1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.

313. Question

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
Use Category 8 minimums.
Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.

314. Question

For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?

TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030

FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB

FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040

BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 OOOOOKT

P6SM CLR=

Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

315. Question

What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure?

400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

316. Question

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?

600-1 if the airport has an ILS.
Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles.
The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

317. Question

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the

minimums specified for the approach procedure selected.
alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.
minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of "IFR Alternate Minimums."

318. Question

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?

800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.
800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.

319. Question

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are affected.
The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

320. Question

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.

321. Question

If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis, you may have symptoms of

hypoxia.
hyperventilation.
carbon monoxide poisoning.

322. Question

Which is not a type of hypoxia?

Histotoxic.
Hypoxic.