ifr all questions

1. Question

AIRMETs are issued on a scheduled basis every

15 minutes after the hour only.
15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.
six hours.

2. Question

The Hazardous lnflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of

SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisories.
SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Wind Shear Advisories, and Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW).
Wind Shear Advisories, Radar Weather Reports, SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).

3. Question

Pilots of IFR flights seeking ATC in-flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind that

ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service.
circumnavigating severe weather can only be accommodated in the en route areas away from terminals because of congestion.
ATC Narrow Band Radar does not provide the controller with weather intensity capability.

4. Question

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous

particularly to light aircraft.
to all aircraft.
only to light aircraft operations.

5. Question

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous

particularly to large commercial operators.
to all aircraft regardless of size or operating environment.
particularly to light aircraft.

6. Question

The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 6,500 feet)?

METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2980

5,180 feet.
5,800 feet.
5,880 feet.

7. Question

The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 3,800 feet)?

SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000

500 feet.
1,700 feet.
2,500 feet.

8. Question

Interpret the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA.

METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 OO/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42

The wind is variable from 290° to 360°.
Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31.
Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.

9. Question

A ceiling is defined as the height of the

highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.
lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast.
lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.

10. Question

What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?

METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 OO/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42

Runway 31 ceiling is 2,700 feet.
Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.
Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.

11. Question

Interpret this PIREP.

MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430/FL 060/TP C182/SK BKN BL /WX RA/TB MDT.

Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward.
FL 60,000, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind.
At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.

12. Question

Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP?

UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA – 04 /WV245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.

64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000 feet. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172.
Reported by a Cessna 172, turbulence and light rime icing in climb to 8,000 ft.
63 nautical miles on the 64 degree radial from Oklahoma City, thunderstorm and light rain at 1522 UTC.

13. Question

Use the TAF to determine the wind shear forecast.

TAF

KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG

FM1930 09012KT 1SM-DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=

Wind shear from the surface to 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
Wind shear at 500 feet MSL from 270° at 50 KT.
Wind shear at 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.

14. Question

What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF?

KMEM 091740Z 1818 OOOOOKT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=

Calm.
Unknown.
Not recorded.

15. Question

When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is

expressed as 6PSM.
expressed as P6SM.
omitted from the report.

16. Question

Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airport’s runway complex?

Area Forecast (FA).
Weather Depiction Charts.
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).

17. Question

A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is

3 knots or less.
6 knots or less.
9 knots or less.

18. Question

The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a

5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.
5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.

19. Question

A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft at FL 390 to be 300° at 200 knots; temperature -54°C. How would this data be encoded in the FB?

300054.
809954.
309954.

20. Question

How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast?

FT 6000 9000

0737-04 1043-10

3°C.
10°C.
7°C.

21. Question

What wind direction and speed is represented by the entry 9900+00 for 9,000 feet, on a Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)?

Light and variable; less than 5 knots.
Vortex winds exceeding 200 knots.
Light and variable; less than 10 knots.

22. Question

When is the temperature at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)?

When the temperature is standard for that altitude.
For the 3,000-foot altitude (level) or when the level is within 2,500 feet of station elevation.
Only when the winds are omitted for that altitude (level).

23. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over ALB at FL 270?

270° magnetic at 97 knots; ISA -4°C.
260° true at 110 knots; ISA +5°C.
275° true at 97 knots; ISA +4°C.

24. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL 270?

260° magnetic at 93 knots; ISA +7°C.
280° true at 113 knots; ISA +3°C.
255° true at 93 knots; ISA +6°C.

25. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at FL 270?

265° true; 100 knots; ISA +3°C.
270° true; 110 knots; ISA +5°C.
260° magnetic; 100 knots; ISA – 5°C.

26. Question

When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)? When the wind

is less than 5 knots.
is less than 10 knots.
at the altitude is within 1,500 feet of the station elevation.

27. Question

Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts?

Magnetic direction and knots.
Magnetic direction and MPH.
True direction and knots.

28. Question

Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) for OKC at 39,000 feet.

FT 3000 9000 12000 24000 39000

OKC 9900 2018+00 2130-06 2361-30 830558

Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58°C.
Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58°C.
Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58°C.

29. Question

A prognostic chart depicts the conditions

existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.
which presently exist from the 1,000-millibar through the 700-millibar level.
forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.

30. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart at 06Z indicates that central Colorado and southeastern Wyoming can expect

moderate or greater turbulence from to FL 100 to FL 180.
moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.
no turbulence is indicated.

31. Question

refer to the diagram below The 24-Hour Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart at 06Z indicates that Ohio will likely experience

ceilings less than 1,000 feet, visibility less than 3 miles.
clear sky and visibility greater than 6 miles.
ceilings 1,000 to 3,000 feet and visibility 3 to 5 miles.

32. Question

The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts weather conditions

that are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart.
as they existed at the time the chart was prepared.
that existed at the time shown on the chart which is about 3 hours before the chart is received.

33. Question

Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?

Conditions existing at the time of the observation.
Interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations.
Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.

34. Question

A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?

Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.
The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.
Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs.

35. Question

What determines how icing is reported on a PIREP?

Type of ice.
Thickness of ice.
Rate of accumulation.

36. Question

What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500-millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?

Winds aloft at FL 180 generally flow across the height contours.
Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated.
Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.

37. Question

Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
Convective outlook.
Radar Summary Chart.

38. Question

The Surface Analysis Chart depicts

actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.
frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission.
actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.

39. Question

What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?

It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours.
It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.
It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 MB).

40. Question

What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a following 24-hr. period?

General thunderstorm activity.
A severe weather watch bulletin.
When forecast conditions are expected to continue beyond the valid period.

41. Question

If you encounter in-flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?

Light, moderate, severe, extreme.
Trace, light, moderate, severe.
Few, light, moderate, severe.

42. Question

When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?

Every 12 hours as required.
Every 24 hours as required.
Unscheduled and issued as required.

43. Question

What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?

Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.
Levels of widespread cloud coverage.
Winds and temperatures aloft.

44. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?

Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.
Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available.
Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.

45. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)

425 feet per minute.
530 feet per minute.
637 feet per minute.

46. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. What is your position relative to the FLOSI intersection northbound on V213 airway?

West of V213 and approaching the FLOSI intersection.
East of V213 and approaching the FLOSI intersection.
West of V213 and past the FLOSI intersection.

47. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?

When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude.
When 3 minutes (at 90 knots ground speed) have expired or reaching 373 feet MSL, whichever occurs first.
Upon reaching 373 feet AGL.

48. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?

3,000 feet MSL.
1,800 feet MSL.
1,080 feet MSL.

49. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?

173 feet MSL.
200 feet AGL.
270 feet MSL.

50. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Using an average ground speed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?

395 feet per minute.
480 feet per minute.
555 feet per minute.

51. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY6 at Bradley International?

HIRL, REIL, and VASI.
HIRL and VASI.
ALSF2 and HIRL.

52. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative . Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility?

DH 424/24.
No adjustments are required.
DH 374/24.

53. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. At which location or condition does the STELA.STELA1 arrival begin?

54. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover a proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?

L-2
L-7
L-13

55. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover a proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?

When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact.
At STAKK intersection.
Over the BOZEMAN VOR.

56. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the instrument departure procedure from RWY 9?

250 feet per minute.
475 feet per minute.
968 feet per minute.

57. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is

10,200 feet.
10,500 feet.
8,500 feet.

58. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V-86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs?

74,500 feet MSL.
17,000 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.

59. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the minimum crossing altitude over the BOZEMAN VORTAC for a flight southeast bound on V86?

8,500 feet MSL.
10,200 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL.

60. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?

11,800 feet MSL.
10,800 feet MSL.
10,200 feet MSL.

61. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 28R in an aircraft with a V50 of 72 kt.?

A
B
C

62. Question

Refer to the diagram below. How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 28R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?

Three
Four
Five

63. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway, and the threshold lights?

No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.
Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.
Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

64. Question

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.
Red chevron marks in the non-landing position of the runway.

65. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

66. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?

250 feet.
500 feet.
750 feet.

67. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?

1,000 feet.
500 feet.
250 feet.

68. Question

Destination signs indicate

The taxiway a pilot is on.
The runway a pilot is on.
The direction to takeoff runways.

69. Question

The “ILS critical area boundary” sign identifies the

Area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
Edge of the U.S. critical area.
Exit boundary for the runway protected area.

70. Question

The “runway hold position” sign denotes

an entrance to a taxiway from runway.
an entrance to a runway from a taxiway.
an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway.

71. Question

The “No Entry” sign identifies

the exit boundary for the runway protected area.
an area that does not continue beyond intersection.
paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

72. Question

What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

Defines direction and designation of runway when exiting a taxiway.
Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway.
Defines a mandatory exit point from the runway during Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).

73. Question

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Indicates direction to take-off runway

74. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

75. Question

Refer to the diagram below. While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

76. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which sign indicates you are holding short of the ILS critical area?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

77. Question

A runway exit sign

points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway.
designates an intersection of two or more runways.
shows the direction to exit from a named taxiway onto a runway.

78. Question

“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiway

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
allows an aircraft permission onto the runway

79. Question

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates

direction to the take-off runway.
designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
designation area direction of exit taxiway from runway.

80. Question

Within aircraft movement areas, “destination signs” identify the

runway on which an aircraft is located.
direction to the takeoff runway.
entrance to the runway from a taxiway.

81. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

yellow lettering with a black background.
white lettering with a red background.
black lettering with a yellow background.

82. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What colors are runway holding position signs?

Location sign.
Mandatory instruction sign.
Direction sign.

83. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What colors are runway holding position signs?

White with a red background.
Red with a white background.
Yellow with a black background.

84. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are

white, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
yellow, and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

85. Question

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

86. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?

5
6
7

87. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?

4
5
6

88. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?

4
5
6

89. Question

Which of the following terms describes an airport?

An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
An area of land that is used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft, but does not include buildings since not all airports have buildings.
All runway, taxiway, and ramp areas created for use by aircraft.

90. Question

The Glide Path Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between

The final approach fix and the missed approach point.
Decision altitude and the runway threshold.
Any initial approach fix(es) and the final approach fix.

91. Question

The term “airport” means an area of land or water that is

Scheduled for use as an airport.
Used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft and includes taxiways and other ground movement areas.
Used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.

92. Question

Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a private pilot certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?

Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter.
No. You must hold either an unrestricted airline transport pilot-airplane certificate or an airplane instrument rating.
No. However, you may do so if you hold an airline transport pilot-airplane certificate limited to VFR.

93. Question

Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?

When operating in Class E airspace.
For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.

94. Question

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating

under IFR in positive control airspace.
under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace.
in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.

95. Question

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?

All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions.
All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.
Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.

96. Question

To meet instrument experience requirements of CFR Part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what other qualifying information must also be entered?

Location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot.
Number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight.
Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed.

97. Question

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?

All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.
Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

98. Question

What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?

The flight must remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing.
The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot.
The ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.

99. Question

How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument proficiency check if no further IFR flights are made?

90 days.
6 calendar months.
12 calendar months.

100. Question

No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.
six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions.
three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours.

101. Question

After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?

6 months.
90 days.
12 months.

102. Question

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, in the same category of aircraft:

holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems, and six instrument approaches.
six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.
6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft, and six instrument approaches.

103. Question

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

white and the far bar as red.
red and the far bar as white.
white and the far bar as white.

104. Question

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.
If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

105. Question

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA the pilot should

start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.
continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.
level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

106. Question

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will

both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath.
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath.
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.

107. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An “on glidepath” indication is

8
10
11

108. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8 degree) indication?

9
10
11

109. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5 degrees?

10
11
12

110. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?

10
11
12

111. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates

you are on the centerline for your assigned runway.
you are too low on the approach.
you have lined up with the wrong runway.

112. Question

The primary purpose of runway and identifier lights installed at many airfields is to provide

rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.
rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.

113. Question

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?0

MALSR.
HIRL.
REIL.

114. Question

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

Direct headwind.
Direct tailwind.
Light quartering tailwind.

115. Question

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed.
the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
C. of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

116. Question

Refer to the diagram below. With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner’s vortices.

The winds will push the vortices southeast of your takeoff path.
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

117. Question

What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?

The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength.
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

118. Question

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point..
At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
Beyond the jet's touchdown point.

119. Question

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?

Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.
Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.

120. Question

What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline.
Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing.
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.

121. Question

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.
When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
Only when advised by ATC.

122. Question

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?

Reporting VFR conditions to ARTCC.
Obtaining an amended clearance authorizing VFR flight.
Seeing and avoiding other aircraft.

123. Question

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from

the ATIS broadcast.
the FSS.
Notices to Airmen (Class II).

124. Question

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?

To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts.
To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.
To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

125. Question

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?

Notices to Airmen Publication.
FAA FSS.
Chart Supplement.

126. Question

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?

Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) NOTAMs.
Chart Supplement and FDC NOTAMs.
Chart Supplement and Distant (D) NOTAMs.

127. Question

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that

the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

128. Question

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that

the in-flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace.
the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, D, or E airspace.
an IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.

129. Question

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.

130. Question

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

Current NOTAMs (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
All current NOTAMs only.
Pointer NOTAMs and FDC NOTAMs.

131. Question

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
The point of first intended landing.

132. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?

DME, and airborne radar.
DME, transponder, and type of altimeter.
DME, transponder, and RNAV.

133. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?

Altitude for first leg.
Altitude for first leg and highest altitude.
Highest altitude.

134. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?

Total fuel required for the flight.
Total usable fuel on board.
The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45-minute reserve.

135. Question

What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?

A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.
A reporting point defined by the intersection of two VOR radials.
A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals.

136. Question

You may cancel an IFR flight plan

at any time as long as you advise ATC.
only in an emergency.
if in VMC outside Class A airspace.

137. Question

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower?

The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight.
You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility.
Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.

138. Question

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

139. Question

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)

Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

140. Question

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

DP or transition name and altitude to maintain.
Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.
Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

141. Question

An abbreviated departure clearance “…CLEARED AS FILED…” will always contain the name

and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.

142. Question

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

143. Question

On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED–MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND — SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE — DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

departure control frequency.
transportation costs.
destination airport and route.

144. Question

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”?

The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

145. Question

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”

The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach. procedure.
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.
The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

146. Question

What is the rule or a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?”

The pilot is required to accept the controller's clearance in visual meteorological conditions.
The pilot must accept the clearance if the pavement is dry and the stopping distance is adequate.
The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.

147. Question

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC
climb to, but not descend from, 4,000 feet without further ATC clearance.
use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.

148. Question

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

When visibility is less than 1 mile.
When parallel runways are in use.
When departing from a runway intersection.

149. Question

During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departure

before entering the clouds.
when the tower instructs the change.
upon reaching the traffic pattern altitude.

150. Question

When should you transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?

Only when ATC requests Mode C.
At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
When passing 12,500 feet MSL.

151. Question

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?

Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.
Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute.

152. Question

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

As rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached.
1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude.
As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

153. Question

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.
Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

154. Question

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between

500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute..
500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.
1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.

155. Question

What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?

Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar has been lost.

156. Question

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on
established airways?

Fixes selected to define the route.
There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
All the changeover points.

157. Question

During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

40 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose.
20 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose.
Straight ahead.

158. Question

While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?

Continue as directed.
Advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.
Deviate as needed, then rejoin the approach.

159. Question

You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should

turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.
continue as assigned and query ATC.
turn inbound and join the final approach course.

160. Question

What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)

Reduce TAS to 160 knots and maintain until advised by ATC.
Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC.
Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.

161. Question

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that

You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.
You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

162. Question

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?

Set transponder to code 1200.
Resume normal position reporting.
Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.

163. Question

What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
Radar service is terminated.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

164. Question

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?

Separation from all aircraft.
Position and altitude of all traffic within2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude.
Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

165. Question

While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when

ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.
ground speed changes 10 MPH or more.

166. Question

Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of

500 feet per minute.
400 feet per nautical mile
200 feet per nautical mile

167. Question

When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the
destination?

Immediately after canceling the flight plan.
When advised by ARTCC.
Before entering Class D airspace.

168. Question

What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?

Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
Emergency handling is required to the nearest usable airport.
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

169. Question

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)

Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.

170. Question

You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530 . At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?

Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.

171. Question

You are !n IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.
Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions.
Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions.

172. Question

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA's along the clearance route.

173. Question

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?

Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival.
Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.

174. Question

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under

VFR and land as soon as practicable.
IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.
VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.

175. Question

What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?

Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made.
Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed.
Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

176. Question

What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with
two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.

Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
Continue the flight as cleared, no report is required.
Continue the approach and request a VOR approach.

177. Question

To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft.
six hours in the same category aircraft.
six hours in the same category aircraft, and at least 3 of the 6 hours in actual IFR conditions.

178. Question

A pilot may satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft by logging within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems.
six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or 6 hours in simulated IFR conditions; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved.
6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions, including at least six instrument approaches. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

179. Question

What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?

The approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device.
At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown.
At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.

180. Question

What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?

A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months.
A minimum of six instrument approaches, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months.
A minimum of six instrument approaches in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the preceding 6 calendar months.

181. Question

An instrument rated pilot who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot

completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA-designated examiner.
passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector.
6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

182. Question

A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?

December 31, this year.
June 30, next year.
July 31, this year.

183. Question

How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft? Within the previous 6 calendar months, logged

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems.
six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved.
6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

184. Question

Which additional IFR experience is required for you to meet the recent flight experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?

Your present instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar months is

1. three hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator.

2. two instrument approaches in an airplane.

Three hours of simulated or actual instrument flight time in a helicopter and two instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter.
Four instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved airplane flight simulator or training device.
Three instrument approaches in an airplane.

185. Question

A pilot plans an IFR flight on July 10 of this year. In order to meet IFR currency requirements the pilot must have

performed his or her currency tasks between January 10 and July 10.
performed his or her currency tasks between February 10 and July 10 with none of it before February 10.
completed an IPC within the last year.

186. Question

Which additional instrument experience, within the preceding 6 calendar months, is required to meet the requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR if you already have 3 hours in an instrument simulator (including holding, intercepting, and tracking courses) and two instrument approaches in an airplane?

Another two instrument approaches in an airplane.
Another four instrument approaches in the same category and class.
Another 3 hours of actual or simulated instrument flight time in the same category and class.

187. Question

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross-country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least

a Category II pilot authorization.
a First-Class Medical certificate.
a Commercial Pilot Certification with an instrument rating.

188. Question

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?

That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.
The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

189. Question

What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?

The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 nautical miles (NM).
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

190. Question

A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least

a type rating.
a first-class medical certificate.
an instrument rating in the same category of aircraft.

191. Question

You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single-engine airplane with a 25-mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which ratings(s)?

A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single-engine land rating.
A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single-engine and instrument (airplane) rating.
A Private Pilot Certificate with a single-engine land and instrument airplane rating.

192. Question

Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR Part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?

Owner.
Operator.
Pilot-in-command.

193. Question

The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under

IFR.
VFR.
DVFR.

194. Question

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport.
list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.

195. Question

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?

Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet.
Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction.
After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

196. Question

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace.
Class A, special use airspace, Class D, and Class E.
Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B, and Class C.

197. Question

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace extends from

18,000 feet to and including FL 450.
18,000 feet to and including FL 600.
12,500 feet to and including FL 600.

198. Question

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.
The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL where designated.

199. Question

Class G airspace is that airspace where

ATC does not control air traffic.
ATC controls only IFR flights.
the minimum visibility for VFR flights is 3 miles.

200. Question

MCAs are established to

prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.
separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities.

201. Question

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way communications and Mode C transponder.
Two-way communications.
Transponder and DME.

202. Question

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

Surface to 700 feet AGL.
1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

203. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You are cleared to land on RWY 16L at Eugene Mahlon Sweet Field. As you break out of the clouds, you are lined up with the white lights down the center of the runway, which lets you know that you

are on course and lined up correctly.
are off course.
should recheck the winds prior to landing.

204. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the slope of RWY 9?

0.4% up.
0.4% down.
0.3% down.

205. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on runway 4, the compass and heading indicator should read a heading of about

040 degrees.
050 degrees.
055 degrees.

206. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on runway 18, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about

180 degrees.
185 degrees.
175 degrees.

207. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the actual heading of the north runway at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH) airport?

0.3%
003.6 degrees.
360 degrees.

208. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When lined up for takeoff on RWY 27, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about

270 degrees.
275 degrees.
265 degrees.

209. Question

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:

all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
an alternate airport and adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft's takeoff and landing data.

210. Question

What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?

Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.
Private pilot with instrument rating.
Private pilot with appropriate category, class, and instrument ratings.

211. Question

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

When priority has been given.
Any time an emergency occurs.
When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

212. Question

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

213. Question

During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should

not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.

214. Question

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency that causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

Deviate as necessary and squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
Do not deviate until an amended ATC clearance is received and separation from other aircraft is assured.
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible and obtain an amended ATC clearance.

215. Question

Your transponder is inoperative. What are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?

The entry into Class D is prohibited.
Continue the flight as planned.
Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.

216. Question

In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.
Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder.
An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.

217. Question

Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?

A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.
A VOR receiver with DME.
A 4096 code transponder.

218. Question

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

When operating in the Class E airspace.
When operating in a Class A airspace.
When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.

219. Question

When is an IFR flight plan required?

When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.
In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

220. Question

Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?

Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.
Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace.
Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.

221. Question

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

Flight through an MOA.
Flight into an ADIZ.
Flight into Class A airspace.

222. Question

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

223. Question

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.
You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.
You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

224. Question

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)

3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

225. Question

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.
The pilot must request a visual approach and report having the field in sight; ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist.
Anytime the pilot reports the field in sight, ATC may clear the pilot for a contact approach; for a visual approach, the pilot must advise that the approach can be made under VFR conditions.

226. Question

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

in lieu of conducting a SIAP.
if assigned by ATC and will facilitate the approach.
in lieu of a visual approach.

227. Question

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

A ground visibility of at least 2 SM.
A flight visibility of at least 1/2 NM.
Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.

228. Question

Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?

The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.
The controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.
The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.

229. Question

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot.
When ATC advises, "Radar service terminated; resume own navigation?

230. Question

When may you obtain a contact approach?

ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist or you report the runway in sight and are clear of clouds.
ATC may assign a contact approach if you are below the clouds and the visibility is at least 1 mile.
ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile.

231. Question

A Precision Runway Monitor (PRM), approach requires

simultaneously monitoring two frequencies.
special training to monitor two ILS receivers simultaneously.
tracking performance parameters at the decision point.

232. Question

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approaches to two runways.
a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single runway.

233. Question

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?

The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

234. Question

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

235. Question

RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?

RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

236. Question

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.
As an RVR of 2,400 feet.
As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

237. Question

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 RVR?

A ground visibility of 1/2 NM.
A slant range visibility of 2,400 feet for the final approach segment of the published approach procedure.
A ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

238. Question

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.
Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures.
Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.

239. Question

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action

execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climb to the initial approach altitude.
climb to the published circling minimums then proceed direct to the final approach fix.
make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

240. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the LOG RWY 35 missed approach at Duncan/Halliburton Field (DUG), what would be the appropriate entry for the

Direct
Teardrop
Parallel

241. Question

Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway.
Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.

242. Question

If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

arrival at the DH on the glide slope.
arrival at the MDA.
expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

243. Question

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.

244. Question

How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOG frequency box.
LOC/DME are indicated on en route low altitude frequency box.
LOC/DME frequencies available in the Aeronautical Information Manual.

245. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?

21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.
28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

246. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the left of the ILS course?

Top diagram.
Middle diagram.
Bottom diagram.

247. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?

Top diagram.
Middle diagram.
Bottom diagram.

248. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the right of the ILS course?

Top diagram.
Middle diagram.
Bottom diagram.

249. Question

Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable.
Request another approach appropriate to the equipment that is usable.
Raise the minimums a total of that required by each component that is unusable.

250. Question

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may be substituted for the outer marker.
LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for either the outer or middle marker.

251. Question

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VSI in sight?

The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.
The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot's discretion.

252. Question

Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is

permitted to continue the approach and descend to the DH.
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
required to immediately begin the prescribed missed approach procedure

253. Question

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used

in lieu of the OM.
in lieu of visibility requirements.
to determine distance from TDZ.

254. Question

When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?

Higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear 1s encountered, then a decrease.
Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase.
Higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase.

255. Question

The rate of descent on the glide slope depends on

true airspeed.
indicated airspeed.
ground speed.

256. Question

The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

must be increased if the ground speed is decreased.
will remain constant if the indicated airspeed remains constant.
must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased.

257. Question

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will

remain the same regardless of groundspeed.
increase as the groundspeed increases.
decrease as the groundspeed increases.

258. Question

A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 1,000 feet.

259. Question

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in Class G airspace?

3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontally 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
1 mile; above clear clouds; horizontally clear of clouds; below clear of clouds.
1 mile; above 500 feet; horizontally 1,000; below 500 feet.

260. Question

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?

5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.

261. Question

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours?

2,000 feet; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

262. Question

What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours?

1 mile; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.

263. Question

What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours?

1 mile; above 2,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
3 miles; above clear clouds; horizontal clear of clouds; below 500 feet.
1 mile; above clear clouds; horizontal clear of clouds; below clear of clouds.

264. Question

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,

and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

265. Question

During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3,000 ft. scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,

and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

266. Question

When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°.
Drift corrections should be made in 5° increments after passing the outer marker.
Drift corrections should be made in 10° increments after passing the outer marker.

267. Question

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true

When ground speed decreases, rate of descent must increase.
When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope.

268. Question

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

Turn outbound on the final approach course, execute a procedure turn, and inform ATC.
Turn inbound and execute the missed approach procedure at the outer marker if approach clearance has not been received.
Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.

269. Question

Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?

PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Increases, then decreases to approach speed.
PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.
PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, then increased; VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

270. Question

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

Pitch and power.
Power only.
Pitch only.

271. Question

While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

272. Question

While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on a glide slope?

Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.
Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope.

273. Question

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.

274. Question

Assume this clearance is received:
“CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.”
When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix.
After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right

275. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Parallel only.
Direct only.
Teardrop only.

276. Question

Refer to the diagram below. you receive the ATC clearance: “…HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL LEFT TURNS…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Parallel only.
Direct only.
Teardrop only.

277. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Teardrop only.
Direct only.
Parallel only.

278. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL LEFT TURNS….” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Parallel only.
Direct only.
Teardrop only.

279. Question

Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Parallel or teardrop.
Parallel only.
Direct only.

280. Question

Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Teardrop only.
Parallel only.
Direct only.

281. Question

Refer to the diagram below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Teardrop only.
Parallel only.
Direct only.

282. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE ONE FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…” You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?

1 teardrop.
2; direct.
1; direct.

283. Question

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

Abeam the holding fix, or wings level whichever occurs last.
When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.
When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

284. Question

What timing procedure should be used when Performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.
Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound.
Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.

285. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 105 knots ground speed?

520 feet per minute.
520 feet per NM.
557 feet per minute.

286. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. With a 15 knot headwind while flying the ILS Rwy 9 at RAL with 90 knots, you expect to set power for a

318 feet per minute rate of descent.
398 feet per minute rate of descent.
478 feet per minute rate of descent.

287. Question

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

230 knots.
200 knots.
210 knots.

288. Question

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
a radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.
1O knots of the specified holding speed.

289. Question

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be

at pilot's discretion.
only in an emergency.
only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.

290. Question

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

265 knots.
175 knots.
200 knots.

291. Question

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller-driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

230 knots.
265 knots.
200 knots.

292. Question

The standard IFR climb gradient is

500 feet per NM.
400 feet per NM.
200 feet per NM.

293. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…”

1; teardrop entry.
2; direct entry.
1; direct entry.

294. Question

How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

All fixes that are labeled "IAF" which are depicted on the plan view.
Any fix depicted which is located on the final approach course.
Any fix depicted which is located on the final approach course prior to the final approach fix.

295. Question

Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?

Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the leader facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.
Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure.
Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.

296. Question

Aircraft approach categories are based on

certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.

297. Question

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?

The runway has a visual approach slope indicator (VASI).
The published visibility for the ILS is no lower than 3/4 SM.
The approach chart has a visual descent point (VDP) published.

298. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?

70 feet MSL.
57 feet MSL.
44 feet MSL.

299. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?

1,420 feet.
1,380 feet.
1,121 feet.

300. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The symbol on the plan view of the ILS or LOC RWY 13 procedure at DSM represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Des Moines VORTAC.
CLIVE outer marker.
Des Moines International Airport.

301. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the ILS RWY 13 procedures at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

2,548 feet MSL.
2,600 feet MSL.
3,500 feet MSL.

302. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the approach to DSM before you can begin the ILS RWY 13 procedure, the glide slope fails and you are cleared for the LOC RWY 13 at DSM. What altitude minimum applies?

1,420 feet.
1,380 feet.
1,121 feet.

303. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The final approach fix for the ILS RWY 24R is located at

MERCE intersection.
Glide Slope Intercept (lightning bolt).
JETSA intersection.

304. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at

RIIVR intersection.
Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt).
JETSA intersection/locator outer marker.

305. Question

During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

minimum altitude shown on the IAP.
terrain contour information.
natural and man-made reference point information.

306. Question

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.
The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

307. Question

The primary reason single pilot operations in reduced visibility on an instrument approach procedure are made more difficult than multi-crew operations is that the pilot must

continue to fly by instruments while attempting to acquire a visual reference for the runway.
multitask, coordinating the operation of the flight controls, avionics, and radio equipment.
manage a more complex aircraft than those commonly used in multi-crew operations.

308. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is

7,080 feet MSL.
7,977 feet MSL.
8,000 feet MSL.

309. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At what minimum altitude should you cross RAMKE intersection during the S-LA RWY 6 approach at ROA?

2,720 MSL.
4,300 MSL.
1,780 MSL.

310. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 procedure is

2:33 from PECAT.
200 feet AGL.
1,081 feet MSL.

311. Question

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
You may descend immediately to published glide slope interception altitude.
Only after you are established on the final approach unless informed otherwise by ATC.

312. Question

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.
1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.

313. Question

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
Use Category 8 minimums.
Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.

314. Question

For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?

TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030

FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB

FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040

BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 OOOOOKT

P6SM CLR=

Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

315. Question

What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure?

400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

316. Question

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?

600-1 if the airport has an ILS.
Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles.
The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

317. Question

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the

minimums specified for the approach procedure selected.
alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.
minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of "IFR Alternate Minimums."

318. Question

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?

800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.
800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.

319. Question

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are affected.
The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

320. Question

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.

321. Question

If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis, you may have symptoms of

hypoxia.
hyperventilation.
carbon monoxide poisoning.

322. Question

Which is not a type of hypoxia?

Histotoxic.
Hypoxic.
Hypertoxic.

323. Question

Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight?

Promptly descend altitude.
Increase cabin air flow.
Avoid sudden inhalations.

324. Question

Carbon monoxide poisoning, common in flying as a result of an exhaust leak, is considered what type of hypoxia?

Hypemic.
Histotoxic.
Hypoxic.

325. Question

Hyperventilation occurs when

an insufficient amount of air is breathed into the lungs.
there is a lack of oxygen in the bloodstream.
an excessive amount of air is breathed into the lungs.

326. Question

A corrective action to overcome symptoms of hyperventilation is to

take quick, deep breaths.
lower altitude immediately.
slow the breathing rate.

327. Question

The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions

are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience.
occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.
must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.

328. Question

Which system is most likely responsible for a pilot suffering spatial disorientation?

Cardiopulmonary system.
Autokinesis system.
Vestibular system.

329. Question

A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if

kinesthetic senses are ignored.
eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.

330. Question

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible.
Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

331. Question

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

Rely on kinesthetic sense.
Use a very rapid cross-check.
Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.

332. Question

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

Use a very rapid cross-check.
Properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly.
Avoid banking in excess of 30°.

333. Question

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

pilot disorientation.
false horizon.
elevator illusion.

334. Question

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of

spinning in the opposite direction.
being in a noseup attitude.
diving into the ground.

335. Question

An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of

tumbling backwards.
a noseup attitude.
a descent with the wings level.

336. Question

A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as

elevator illusions.
autokinesis.
false horizons.

337. Question

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

Coriolis illusion.
elevator illusion.
inversion illusion.

338. Question

The sensory system responsible for most of the illusions leading to spatial disorientation is the

visual system.
vestibular system.
postural system.

339. Question

Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of

rising or falling.
turning.
motion reversal.

340. Question

Pilots should take care when retrieving charts or dropped objects in the cockpit to avoid

Autokinesis.
False horizon.
Coriolis illusion.

341. Question

While making prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as

Coriolis illusion.
autokinesis.
the leans.

342. Question

To preserve night vision, the most appropriate cockpit lighting is

Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.
The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation.
Increase the interior intensity to slightly above the outside level.

343. Question

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making terrain features harder to see.
The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach.

344. Question

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?

Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots.
The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.
Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.

345. Question

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left..

346. Question

Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower-than-usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be

higher than actual, leading to a lower-than-normal approach.
lower than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach.
higher than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach.

347. Question

What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower-than-usual runway?

An upsloping runway.
A wider-than-usual runway.
A downsloping runway.

348. Question

Why is fatigue hazardous to flight safety?

The pilot hurries to get done in order to rest.
Fatigue may not be apparent to a pilot until serious errors are made (an impaired pilot is a dangerous pilot).
The pilot is lazy and rushes to get done quickly.

349. Question

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?

600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.
800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.

350. Question

For an airplane, determine the weather minimum conditions required at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate on your IFR flight plan.

From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.

351. Question

What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?

The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles respectively.
The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.

352. Question

What standard minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?

Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2miles respectively.
Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

353. Question

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFT flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will

allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions.
be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.

354. Question

When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?

Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.
600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.

355. Question

What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?

Plus or minus 4°.
Plus or minus 6°.
Plus or minus 8°.

356. Question

What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?

The date, place, bearing error, and signature.
The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature.
The date, place, bearing error, aircraft total time, and signature.

357. Question

When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished when used to operate under IFR?

Within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.
Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.
Within the preceding 30 days.

358. Question

Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?

VOR name or identification, date of check, amount of bearing error, and signature.
Place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature.
Date of check, VOR name or identification, place of operational check, and amount of bearing error.

359. Question

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.
ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.
VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and altimeter system within 12 calendar months.

360. Question

When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before

takeoff.
entering IFR conditions.
entering Class E airspace.

361. Question

To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to

controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.
entering weather conditions in any airspace.
entering controlled airspace.

362. Question

To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to

entering controlled airspace.
entering weather conditions below VFR minimums.
takeoff.

363. Question

Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?

Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.
Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.
Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.

364. Question

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he or she files a flight plan

and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.
prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.
and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

365. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

3,000 feet over all terrain.
3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

366. Question

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain?

1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM of course.
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of course.
7,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 3 NM of course.

367. Question

What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?

VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.
VOR receiver and, if in ARTS Ill environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.
Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.

368. Question

An aircraft operated during IFR under 14 CFR Part 91 is required to have which of the following?

Radar altimeter.
Dual VOR system.
Gyroscopic direction indicator.

369. Question

Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least

a slip skid indicator.
dual VOR receivers.
distance measuring equipment.

370. Question

Where is DME required under IFR?

At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
In positive control airspace.
Above 18,000 feet MSL.

371. Question

To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, an aircraft must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those required is

a radar altimeter.
a transponder with altitude reporting capability.
a clock with sweep second pointer or digital presentation.

372. Question

What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?

All occupants must use oxygen for the entire time at this altitude.
Crew must start using oxygen at 12,000 feet and passengers at 15,000 feet.
Crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet.

373. Question

What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?

12,500 feet.
14,000 feet.
15,000 feet.

374. Question

What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?

10,500 feet.
12,000 feet.
12,500 feet.

375. Question

If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 1 2, 500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?

2 hours 20 minutes.
1 hour 20 minutes.
1 hour 50 minutes.

376. Question

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above

12,500 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL.
Flight level (FL) 180.

377. Question

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace

at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
at and above 2,500 feet above the surface.
below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

378. Question

Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to the

FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the proposed operation.
nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24 hours before the proposed operation.
controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.

379. Question

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace?

A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.
The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.
The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).

380. Question

If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,

the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace.
ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.
aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200 feet AGL and proceed to destination.

381. Question

Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by

January 5, next year.
January 5, 2 years hence.
January 31, 2 years hence.

382. Question

An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within

12 calendar months.
18 calendar months.
24 calendar months.

383. Question

An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection are required to be accomplished within

18 calendar months of operating in IMC conditions.
24 calendar months of operating in IMC conditions.
24 calendar months of operating under IFR in controlled airspace.

384. Question

Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?

14 CFR Part 61.
14 CFR Part 91.
NTSB Part 830.

385. Question

The primary reason single pilot operations in reduced visibility on an instrument approach procedure are made more difficult than multicrew operations is that the pilot must

continue to fly by instruments while attempting to acquire a visual reference for the runway.
multitask, coordinating the operation of the flight controls, avionics, and radio equipment.
manage a more complex aircraft than those commonly used in multicrew operations.

386. Question

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

On tower frequency.
On approach control frequency.
One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

387. Question

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

A straight-in landing may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.
The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and (s)he has been cleared to land.
A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

388. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?

One VOR receiver.
One VOR receiver and one DME
Two VOR receivers and DME.

389. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The minimum safe altitude (MSA) for the VOR/DME or GPS-A at 7D3 is geographically centered on what position?

DEANI intersection.
WHITE CLOUD VOR/DME.
MAJUB intersection.

390. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. You plan to fly to Baldwin for Christmas. What minimum equipment is required for the VOR/ DME or GPS-A procedure, and can you complete the flight?

One VOR receiver; yes, the trip will be fun.
One VOR receiver and one DME receiver; no flight though, the airport is closed.
Two VOR receivers; yes, but no fuel is available because the airport is unattended.

391. Question

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting.
the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area.
the NAVAIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored.

392. Question

During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

When radar vectors are provided.
when cleared for the approach.
None, since it is always mandatory.

393. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 18 approach to Lincoln?

If a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed.
The point where the turn is begun and the type and rate of turn are optional.
A normal procedure turn may be made if the 10 DME limit is not exceeded.

394. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VORTAC at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,200 feet commence?

As soon as intercepting LOC in bound.
Immediately.
Only at the point authorized by ATC.

395. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If cleared for an S-LOC 18 approach at Lincoln Municipal from over HUSKR, it means the flight should

land straight in on runway 18.
comply with straight-in landing minimums.
begin final approach without making a procedure turn.

396. Question

On a nonprecision approach, what is the maximum acceptable descent rate during the final stages of the approach (below 1,000 ft. AGL)?

1,000 fpm.
1,000 fpm to 500 AGL, then 500 fpm.
500 fpm.

397. Question

Under the stabilized approach concept, what is the maximum acceptable descent rate during the final stages of an approach?

1,,000 fpm for either precision or nonprecision approaches.
1,200 fpm above 1,000 feet AGL and 500 fpm below 1,000 feet AGL for all approaches.
1,000 fpm for precision and 1,200 fpm for nonprecision approaches.

398. Question

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

180 knots IAS.
200 knots IAS.
250 knots IAS.

399. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR Part 91 operator at Dothan, AL using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 32 approach at 120 knots? (Dual VORs available.)

MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 1 SM.
MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM.
MDA 1,220 feet MSL and visibility 2 and 1/2 SM.

400. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should

land straight in on runway 32.
comply with straight-in landing minimums.
begin final approach without making a procedure turn.

401. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What indication should you get when it is time to turn in bound while in the procedure turn at FEHXE?

4 DME miles from FEHXE.
13.9 DME miles from the MAP.
8.6 DME miles from KAGBE.

402. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the recommended descent angle for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach?

2.12 degrees.
2.52 degrees.
3.00 degrees.

403. Question

Refer to the diagram below. How should the missed approach point be identified when executing the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?

When the TO-FROM indicator changes.
Upon arrival at 780 feet on the glidepath.
when time has expired for 5 NM past the FAF.

404. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?

An approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance.
A transponder and an approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance.
Any approved RNAV receiver.

405. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What type of entry is recommended to the missed approach holding pattern if the inbound heading is 050°?

Direct.
Parallel.
Teardrop.

406. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. You have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach to LIT. At a groundspeed of 105 knots. What are the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?

2.82 degrees and 524 feet per minute.
3.00 degrees and 557 feet per minute.
4.00 degrees and 550 feet per nautical mile.

407. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What type entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern depicted on the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach chart for Price/Carbon County Airport?

Direct only.
Teardrop only.
Parallel only.

408. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At which points may you initiate a descent to the next lower minimum altitude when cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach, from the PUC R-095 IAF (DME operative)?

Start descent from 8,900 when established on final, from 7,500 when at the 5.1 DME fix, and from 6,240 when landing requirements are met.
Start descent from 8,900 when established on the PUC R-189 from 8,000 at the 8.3 DME fix, from 7,500 at the 5.1 DME fix, and from 6,240 when landing requirements are met.
Start descent from 8,900 at the R-095, from 8,000 at the LR-164, from 7,500 at the 5.1 DME fix.

409. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the purpose of the 10,600 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?

It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.
It is the minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 023° and 293° magnetic bearing to PUCVOR.

410. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If the DME at PUC airport is inoperative, the airborne DME will

continuously indicate "99" as the mileage.
enter "search" mode but fail to lock on.
not transmit a coded identification audio tone.

411. Question

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines.
Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.
Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

412. Question

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until

reaching the FAF.
advised to begin descent.
established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

413. Question

If the plan view on an approach chart does not include a procedure turn barb, that means

a procedure turn is not authorized.
you should fly a teardrop entry.
a racetrack-type turn is required.

414. Question

Refer to the diagram below. How should a pilot reverse course to get established on the in bound course of the ILS RWY 9, if radar vectoring to EXPAM?

Execute a standard 45° procedure turn toward Seal Beach VORTAC or Pomona VORTAC.
Make an appropriate entry to the depicted holding pattern at EXPAM INT.
Use any type of procedure turn, but remain within 1O NM of Riverside VOR.

415. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the minimum altitude descent procedure if cleared for the S ILS 9 approach from Seal Beach VORTAC?

Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to and maintain 2,500 until crossing EXPAM, descend to 1,280 (DH).
Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to 2,800 when established on the LOC course, intercept and maintain the GS to 960 (DH).
Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to 2,500 while established on the LOC course inbound, intercept and maintain the GS to 960 (DH).

416. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. At which point does the JEN.JEN9 arrival begin?

INK VOR.
GLEN ROSE VORTAC.
FEVER intersection.

417. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. At which location or condition does the STELA.STELA1 arrival begin?

ALB VORTAC.
CANAN intersection.
STELA intersection.

418. Question

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by

the established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.
an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.
direct route only

419. Question

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?

Instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot.
The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC.
If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description.

420. Question

Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?

The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory.
To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure.
To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure.

421. Question

Which is true regarding STARs?

STARs are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic.
STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
STARs are used at certain airports to decrease traffic congestion.

422. Question

Refer to the diagram below. For takeoff on RWY 9 using an average groundspeed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum rate of climb as specified on the instrument departure procedure?

830 feet per minute.
415 feet per minute.
970 feet per minute.

423. Question

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

DP's, STAR's, and contact approaches.
Contact and visual approaches.
DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.

424. Question

ATC can issue a STAR

to all pilots wherever STARs are available.
only if the pilot requests a STAR in the "Remarks" section of the flight plan.
when ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR."

425. Question

Which of the following statements regarding STARs is most accurate?

STARS facilitate the transition between the departure procedure and en route portion of the flight.
STARs facilitate the transition between the en route portion of the flight and the instrument approach procedure.
STARs can be planned for use by aircraft with RNAV capability, subject to any limitations or requirements noted on en route charts in applicable Advisory Circulars, or by NOTAM.

426. Question

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.
Advise departure control upon initial contact.
Enter "NO DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

427. Question

A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?

210
450
490

428. Question

On a GPS with WAAS capability, what is the significance of “LNAV+V” being displayed?

Approved vertical guidance to descend to the decision height is provided to the pilot.
Advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the pilot during the descent to the runway.
Advisor vertical guidance is provided to the pilot that must be used in lieu of published step-down fixes on the instrument approach.

429. Question

When flying a GPS approach procedure, what effect will overriding an automatically selected sensitivity have?

No effect.
Cancel the approach mode annunciation.
Initiate a descent to MOA.

430. Question

When proper RAIM sensitivity is not available, manually resetting sensitivity to 0.3 NM will

Not automatically change the RAIM sensitivity on some receivers.
Automatically change settings to approach mode.
Allow the approach to continue in terminal sensitivity.

431. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over APE VORTAC, what will ATC expect of you?

Proceed to CASIER, use the S-28 LOC 1620-1 minimums.
Proceed straight in from FAIRF, descend after FAIRF.
Proceed direct to FAIRF and execute the parallel entry depicted on the instrument approach procedure.

432. Question

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM} is not available prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot should

use a navigation or approach system other than GPS for an approach.
continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured.
continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF

433. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When flying the LNAV approach, the missed approach point (MAP) would be indicated by reaching

an altitude of 3,100 feet.
a distance of 1.5 NM to RW30.
the RW30 waypoint.

434. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which of the following best described BEMXI?

The missed approach point (MAP).
The initial approach fix (IAF).
The final approach fix (FAF).

435. Question

Refer to the diagram below. How do you recognize the missed approach point on the LNAV VNAV approach?

At the RW30 waypoint.
At the Decision Altitude (DA) for the LPV portion of this approach.
Arrival at the LNAV/VNAV Decision Altitude (DA).

436. Question

Which of the following is true concerning GPS approaches?

Handheld GPS receivers are approved in emergency situations.
Terminal mode occurs within 20 NM of the destination airport.
In approach mode, the sensitivity on the CDI changes from 1 NM to 0.3 NM.

437. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The correct GPS entry when told by ATC to “expect the GPS approach to runway 30” is

load and activate the approach.
to select the vectors-to-final approach setting.
only load the approach.

438. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which type of waypoint is the AGHAN fix?

Computer navigation fix (CNF).
Fly-over waypoint.
Fly-by waypoint.

439. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You are flying the RNAV(GPS} RWY 30 approach to LBF, over BEMXI, and you receive a RAIM error. You should

Continue to the missed approach point while climbing to 4,900 feet, and then execute the missed approach instructions.
Continue the approach, but descend no lower than the circling minimums
Continue the approach to published minimums, but complete the approach in 2 minutes or less.

440. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At what point is the pilot authorized to descend below 5,300 feet when cleared to the AJCIZ waypoint from the west?

15 NM from the waypoint.
6 NM past the waypoint.
30 NM from the waypoint.

441. Question

During a WMS GPS approach, you receive an LNAV+V annunciation on the GPS display. You should

descend to LNAV approach minimums using the barometric altimeter to comply with altitude restrictions, referencing advisory vertical guidance as an aid.
not descend any further, proceed to the missed approach point, and execute the missed approach.
descend to LNAV/VNAV approach minimums, while closely monitoring the vertical guidance for anomalies.

442. Question

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have

an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics systems.
a GPS approach that is anticipated to be operational and available at the ETA.

443. Question

The primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather is

variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions.
changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.
movement of the air masses.

444. Question

Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?

Centrifugal.
Pressure gradient.
Coriolis.

445. Question

What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds?

The winds at 2,000 feet and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction.
The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.
The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2,000 feet and are usually weaker.

446. Question

Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to

a stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
friction between the wind and the surface.
stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

447. Question

What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?

Coriolis force.
Surface friction.
The greater density of the air at the surface.

448. Question

An air mass is a body of air that

has similar cloud formations associated with it.
creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface.
covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.

449. Question

A characteristic of the stratosphere is

an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.
a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet.
relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

450. Question

A jet stream is defined as wind of

30 knots or greater.
40 knots or greater.
50 knots or greater.

451. Question

The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is

20,000 feet.
25,000 feet.
37,000 feet.

452. Question

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally

stronger and farther north in the winter.
weaker and farther north in the summer.
stronger and farther north in the summer.

453. Question

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.
Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

454. Question

What is the definition of MEA?

The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.
An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal coverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.

455. Question

The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage is the

MEA.
MRA.
MOCA.

456. Question

Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

MRA.
MCA.
MOCA.

457. Question

Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

MOCA.
MRA.
MCA.

458. Question

ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within

22 NM of a VOR.
25 NM of a VOR,.
30 NM of a VOR.

459. Question

Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only

12 NM.
22 NM.
25 NM.

460. Question

Military training routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet are depicted on

IFR Planning Charts.
IFR Low Altitude En Route Charts.
IFR High Altitude En Route Charts.

461. Question

The altitude that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements is the minimum:

obstacle clearance altitude.
reception altitude.
enroute altitude.

462. Question

Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)

Adequate navigation signals.
Adequate communications.
1,000-foot obstacle clearance.

463. Question

If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?

The MEA at which the fix is approached.
The MRA at which the fix is approached.
The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.

464. Question

In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of

3 SM from the course flown.
4 SM from the course flown.
4 NM from the course flown.

465. Question

In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of

500 feet above the highest obstacle.
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.

466. Question

MEA is an altitude that assures

obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME mileage.
a 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.
acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

467. Question

Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is

18,000 feet MSL.
24,000 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL.

468. Question

Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?

Whenever the pilot reports the loss of any navigational aid.
When it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic.
When the pilot requests it.

469. Question

What altitude may a pilot on an IFR flight plan select upon receiving a VFR-on-Top clearance?

Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above or 1,000 feet below the meteorological condition.
Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.
Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 500 feet above the meteorological condition.

470. Question

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-on-Top clearance?

VFR only.
VFR and IFR.
VFR when "in the clear" and IFR when "in the clouds."

471. Question

Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?

To VFR on Top.
Special VFR to VFR Over-the-Top.
VFR Over-the-Top.

472. Question

When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by ATC?

Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.
Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow.
When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA.

473. Question

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?

When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions.
When flying in VFR conditions above clouds.
When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance.

474. Question

Where are VFR-on-Top operations prohibited?

In Class A airspace.
During off-airways direct flights.
When flying through Class 8 airspace.

475. Question

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-on-Top clearance?

At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOGA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition.
At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOGA, or existing meteorological condition.
Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.

476. Question

When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?

An IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown.
A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC.
The last IFR altitude assigned by ATC.

477. Question

In which airspace is VFR-on-Top operation prohibited?

Class B airspace.
Class E airspace.
Class A airspace.

478. Question

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment?

The same reports that are required for any IFR flight.
All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes.
Only the reporting of any unforecast weather.

479. Question

When on a VFR-on-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on

true course.
magnetic course.
magnetic heading.

480. Question

You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on-Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of
180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR
conditions.)

Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions.
An odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.
An even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.

481. Question

What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?

Even thousand-foot levels.
Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
Odd thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.

482. Question

If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to “maintain VFR conditions on top,” the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the

true course.
magnetic heading.
magnetic course.

483. Question

You are flying on an IFR flight plan at 5,500 feet with a VFR-on-top clearance when you encounter icing. You know there is clear air above and you request 9,500 feet from ATC. They deny the request, but give you 7,500 feet. Are you still VFR-on-top?

Yes, you are still lFR with a VFR-on-top clearance.
No, you are now VFR.
No, your VFR-on-top clearance has been canceled.

484. Question

You encounter structural icing on an IFR flight plan at 7,000 feet. Your request for 9,000 feet is rejected by ATC. You request VFR-on-top at 7,500 feet, which is granted. What must you do with your IFR flight plan?

Comply only with VFR rules.
Cancel it.
Continue as planned.

485. Question

ATC has approved your request for VFR-on-top while on an IFR clearance. Therefore, you

should set your transponder to code 1200.
must fly appropriate IFR altitudes.
must fly appropriate VFR altitudes.

486. Question

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?

A wind change.
An abrupt decrease in pressure.
Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.

487. Question

Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.
Turbulence will always exist in wind-shear conditions.

488. Question

Frontal waves normally form on

slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts.
rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.

489. Question

Where do squall lines most often develop?

In an occluded front.
In a cold air mass.
Ahead of a cold front.

490. Question

When compared to winds at the surface, winds at 2,000 feet are

higher due to absence of friction.
higher and go at right angles to the isobars due to friction.
higher because they move from an area of higher pressure to lower pressure.

491. Question

Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

492. Question

What are the characteristics of stable air?

Good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus-type clouds.
Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumulus-type clouds.
Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds.

493. Question

What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?

Layered clouds with little vertical development.
Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence.
Clouds with extensive vertical development.

494. Question

Which is a characteristic of stable air?

Fair weather cumulus clouds.
Stratiform clouds.
Unlimited visibility.

495. Question

The general characteristics of unstable air are

good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds.
good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiform-type clouds.
poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds.

496. Question

What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?

First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.
Vertical clouds with increasing height.
Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

497. Question

Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of

stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

498. Question

What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?

Advective action.
Upward currents.
Cyclonic movement.

499. Question

Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?

Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism.
Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting.
Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.

500. Question

What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

The method by which the air is lifted.
The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.

501. Question

Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?

Low-level winds.
Ambient lapse rate.
Atmospheric pressure.

502. Question

What are some characteristics of unstable air?

Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.
Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
Turbulence and good surface visibility.

503. Question

Unsaturated air flowing up slope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate)

3°C per 1,000 feet.
2°C per 1,000 feet.
2.5°C per 1,000 feet.

504. Question

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A stable layer of air.
An unstable layer of air.
Air mass thunderstorms.

505. Question

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds.
Light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze and light rain.
Turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type clouds, and showery precipitation.

506. Question

A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air.
ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

507. Question

A temperature inversion will normally form only

in stable air.
in unstable air.
when a stratiform layer merges with a cumuliform mass.

508. Question

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?

Moist air moving over colder ground or water.
Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface.
Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface.

509. Question

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

510. Question

The most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion is that produced by

radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

511. Question

What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?

Steam fog and down slope fog.
Precipitation-induced fog and ground fog.
Advection fog and up slope fog.

512. Question

Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?

Increased visibility.
Convection turbulence due to surface heating.
Fog.

513. Question

Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of

atmospheric stabilization around cities.
an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products.
increased temperatures due to industrial heating.

514. Question

In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?

Coastal areas.
Mountain slopes.
Level inland areas.

515. Question

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.
Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions.

516. Question

Under which condition does advection fog usually form?

Moist air moving over colder ground or water.
Warm, moist air settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions.
A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current.

517. Question

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on

relative humidity.
air temperature.
stability of air.

518. Question

To which meteorological condition does the term “dew point” refer?

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
The temperature at which dew will always form.

519. Question

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

water vapor condenses.
water vapor is present.
the temperature and dew point are equal.

520. Question

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

The temperature of the collection surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.
When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.
Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is colder than freezing.

521. Question

What are the four families of clouds?

Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.
Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.
High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

522. Question

Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?

Low clouds.
High clouds.
Clouds with extensive vertical development.

523. Question

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of

a jetstream.
very strong turbulence.
heavy icing conditions.

524. Question

Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate

an inversion.
unstable air.
turbulence.

525. Question

The suffix “nimbus”, used in naming clouds, means a

cloud with extensive vertical development.
rain cloud.
dark massive, towering cloud.

526. Question

A high cloud is composed mostly of

ozone.
condensation nuclei.
ice crystals.

527. Question

Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?

Towering cumulus.
Cumulonimbus.
Altocumulus castellanus.

528. Question

Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate

turbulence at and below the cloud level.
poor visibility.
smooth flying conditions.

529. Question

When is an airplane most likely to be struck by lightning?

OAT greater than 0° C.
Independent of OAT.
OAT between -5°C and +5°C.

530. Question

What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.
A cumulus cloud with a sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate.
Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

531. Question

What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?

The anvil top has completed its development.
Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.
A gust front forms.

532. Question

Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?

Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.
Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.
Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

533. Question

Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?

Warm front.
Squall line.
Air mass.

534. Question

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

Lightning.
Heavy rain showers.
Supercooled raindrops.

535. Question

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

Cumulus.
Dissipating.
Mature.

536. Question

If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?

Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.
Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer.
Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

537. Question

What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms”?

Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.
Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.
Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

538. Question

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

The start of rain at the surface.
Growth rate of cloud is maximum.
Strong turbulence in the cloud.

539. Question

The use of airborne weather-avoidance radar

provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
assures the avoidance of hail.
allows you to fly safely between echoes.

540. Question

In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?

Cumulonimbus clouds.
High humidity and freezing temperature.
Freezing rain.

541. Question

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can

reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent.
increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent.
reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

542. Question

Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

Snow.
Hail.
Ice pellets.

543. Question

What visual clue would alert a pilot to the presence of large supercooled water droplets?

Formation of a glossy, transparent ice.
Loss of RPM or manifold pressure due to induction icing.
Entering an area of fog.

544. Question

When large supercooled water droplets (SLD) are present in temperatures below +5°C, outside air temperature, what type of icing would be expected to form?

Ice that is glossy, clear, or translucent.
Thick, clumpy ice, that has a milky white color.
Induction ice.

545. Question

Which of the following would be an accurate description of supercooled large droplets (SLD)?

Subfreezing water drops greater than 40 microns located in or below clouds.
Subfreezing water drops greater than 50 microns located in or below clouds.
Subfreezing water drops greater than 50 microns at the surface.

546. Question

What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?

You have flown into an area of thunderstorms.
Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude.
You have flown through a cold front.

547. Question

What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?

The temperature is above freezing at your altitude.
The temperature is below freezing at your altitude.
You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.

548. Question

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that

there are thunderstorms in the area.
a cold front has passed.
there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.

549. Question

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?

Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.
Frost decreases control effectiveness.
Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.

550. Question

If the air temperature is +8°C at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

3,350 feet MSL.
5,350 feet MSL.
9,350 feet MSL.

551. Question

A pilot who experiences tailplane icing on the approach should

notify ATC and request vectors to final.
disengage the autopilot and retract flaps.
adds flaps and engage the autopilot.

552. Question

What happens to residual ice that remains after deice boots are inflated and shed ice?

Residual ice increases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature.
Residual ice remains the same until the aircraft exits icing conditions.
Residual ice decreases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature.

553. Question

On which surface of the aircraft could a pilot generally expect to see the first sign of ice accumulation?

Pitot tube.
Wing.
Propeller.

554. Question

What types of surfaces are most likely to see the first signs of ice accumulation?

Large wide areas.
Small narrow areas.
Areas made from metal.

555. Question

While flying a standard instrument departure procedure (DP) you encounter icing conditions and the autopilot is engaged, you should

continue the flight with the autopilot engaged.
increase the indicated airspeed setting for the autopilot.
disengage the autopilot.

556. Question

The most susceptible surface of the aircraft for ice accumulation is the

windshield.
main wing.
tailplane.

557. Question

If you detect icing accumulation in flight, especially if the aircraft is not equipped with a deicing system, you should

move to a higher altitude.
leave the area of precipitation, if able, or fly to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.
fly to an area with liquid precipitation.

558. Question

To recover from a tailplane stall brought on by ice accumulation, the pilot should

retract the flaps and increase power, but only to compensate for the reduction in lift.
decrease power and maintain a speed below Va.
extend the flaps and reduce power to slow the aircraft.

559. Question

Tailplane icing can be detected by a(n)

increase in elevator effectiveness.
gradual uncommanded nose-up pitch.
sudden uncommanded nose-down pitch.

560. Question

Tailplane icing can be detected by

elevator control pulsing, oscillations, or vibrations.
a gradual uncommanded reduction in engine power.
an increase in elevator effectiveness.

561. Question

In an aircraft equipped with a pneumatic deicing system, the appropriate technique for removing ice is to

operate the pneumatic deicing system several times.
operate the pneumatic deicing system once.
confirm that ice has accumulated prior to engaging the pneumatic boots.

562. Question

A tailplane stall as the result of ice accumulation is most likely to occur during

cruise flight.
approach and landing.
an instrument holding pattern.

563. Question

With regards to icing, which is true?

Heavy icing on the leading edge is not as bad as light icing on the upper surface.
Smooth ice on the upper surface will not cause any problems.
Light icing is more of a problem than heavy icing.

564. Question

Which of the following is true about icing?

Small patches of ice sparsely distributed on the upper surface of the wing can cause asymmetrical stalls that result in roll control issues on takeoff.
Small areas of light snow or ice on the upper surface of the wing pose little or no threat to loss of lift.
Light ice on the surface of the wing is less of a concern than large accumulation on the leading edge of the wing.

565. Question

Should you experience uncommanded roll due to icing forward of the ailerons, the most appropriate response is to

begin a climb.
retract the flaps in increments and employ available ice removal equipment.
reduce the angle of attack by reducing the aircraft pitch, and if in a turn, roll wings level.

566. Question

Should you experience buffeting or vibrations after .extending the flaps upon exiting or during icing conditions, the most likely reason is

incipient tailplane stall.
aerodynamic stall due to increased angle of attack.
aerodynamic instability due to ice accumulation forward of the ailerons.

567. Question

The best technique for using deicing boots is to

use them immediately upon visual detection of any ice.
allow ice to build first to reduce likelihood of "ice bridging."
cycle several times after exiting to obtain a completely clean wing.

568. Question

The proper use of deicing boots should include

activation of the system at the first indication of icing and the continued cycling of the boots after leaving icing conditions to ensure any residual ice has been removed.
activation of the system at the first indication of icing and the one cycle of the boots after leaving icing conditions to ensure any residual ice has been removed.
discontinue the use of the boots upon exiting icing conditions.

569. Question

How should deicing boots be used after exiting flight in icing conditions?

It is no longer necessary to operate the boots after leaving icing conditions.
You should continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation.
Only continue to cycle the boots if you are concerned you may still be accumulating ice.

570. Question

Test data indicates that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can

increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent.
reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent.
reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

571. Question

During or after flight in icing conditions, vibration or buffeting that follows, but was not evident prior to, flap deployment is

an aerodynamic instability due to ice buildup forward of the ailerons but aft of the deicer boots.
an incipient tailplane stall as a result of negative tailplane angle after flap deployment.
an aerodynamic wing stall due to increased angle of attack as a result of flap deployment.

572. Question

Which is true concerning aircraft icing?

Small, almost imperceptible amounts of ice on the wing's upper surface cause the same aerodynamic penalties as much larger and more visible accumulations.
Ice accumulation on the wing's leading edge that conforms to the wing contour generally results in little performance degradation.
Small amounts of ice on the wing's surface usually result in correspondingly less performance degradation than larger amounts.

573. Question

Where would you see the first sign of ice buildup?

The pitot tube.
The leading edge of the wing.
The windshield.

574. Question

Roll upsets caused by ice accumulation forward of the ailerons can be remedied by

retracting the flaps to decrease the angle of attack at a given airspeed and maintaining a level pitch attitude.
reducing the angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting and rolling wings level.
decreasing engine power and maintaining a nose-low pitch attitude to dampen the rolling tendency of the wing tips.

575. Question

When using deicing boots, the pilot should

wait for a 1/4-inch to 1/2-inch layer of ice to form before cycling the boots to avoid ice bridging.
deactivate the deicing system immediately after exiting the known icing conditions.
activate the deicing system at the first indication of icing and do so in accordance with the manufacturer's guidance.

576. Question

If you experience icing during an approach, you should

If you experience icing during an approach, you should

extend maximum flaps and keep the autopilot engaged.
retract the flaps as necessary and disengage the autopilot.
fly the airplane manually to the final approach fix and then engage the autopilot.

577. Question

On the initial climbout after takeoff with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation, it is recommended that

you trust that the autopilot will safely handle the icing situation.
the vertical speed mode be disconnected.
the vertical speed mode remain engaged.

578. Question

What type of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets (SLD) that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5°C OAT?

Ice that appears wet or visibly moist.
Ice that builds on the propeller spinner but forward of the blades.
Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots.

579. Question

Which is true regarding Supercooled Large Droplets (SLD) and their accumulation?

SLD can accrue aloft even if the droplets are not being observed at the surface.
SLD will not accrue even in visible moisture if the OAT is above 0°C.
SLD will not accrue even in freezing drizzle because of smaller size droplets.

580. Question

Ice tends to accumulate first on parts of the plane that are

small and narrow.
outside the wind stream.
thick and big.

581. Question

After cycling of the deicing boots, residual ice will

increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases.
decrease as the airspeed decreases or the temperature increases.
remain constant until leaving the icing conditions.

582. Question

Which is true about ice formation on a wing surface?

Ice or frost formation on a wing's upper surface will have no effect on takeoff performance as long as formations are distributed sparsely.
Ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during lift off.
Small ice or frost formation on a wing's upper surface is not as serious as a large accumulation of ice on the wing's leading edge.

583. Question

Which of the following is true about icing characteristics?

Ice on the front and back of the airplane wing is easy to see from the pilot's position.
Ice is virtually undetectable when clear and may appear wet.
Ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing.

584. Question

What is true regarding ice accumulations on a wing surface?

A thin layer of ice on a wing's upper surface will result in little performance degradation if the ice is relatively smooth.
Small, visually imperceptible amounts of ice on a wing's surface during takeoff can result in significant performance degradation.
Frost, snow, and rime ice is easily detectable on a white upper wing surface, while clear ice is difficult to detect.

585. Question

Where will the pilot first notice an accumulation of ice?

On the leading edge of the wing.
On the propeller.
On the air temperature probe.

586. Question

Where is airplane icing most difficult to identify?

On the wing's leading edge.
On the flat upper wing surface.
On the trailing edge of the wing.

587. Question

A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is

keeping the autopilot engaged while monitoring the system.
periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function.

588. Question

On initial climbout after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation you can expect

ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.
the autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the anti-icing boots are working.
the increased airflow under the wings to prevent the accumulation of ice.

589. Question

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence.
The Coriolis phenomenon in both high- and low-level air masses is the principal generating force.
It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

590. Question

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as

light turbulence.
moderate turbulence.
light chop.

591. Question

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.
It may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

592. Question

Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? Choose the most complete answer.

In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell.
In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.
On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.

593. Question

Where does wind shear occur?

Exclusively in thunderstorms.
Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.
With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

594. Question

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground

during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.
during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys.
during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

595. Question

When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following changes in airplane performance?

A sudden change in airspeed.
A sudden surge of thrust.
A fast rate of climb and slow rate of descent.

596. Question

Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to low-level temperature inversions?

It allows airspeed to go above normal climb and approach speed.
The pilot can ignore the possibilities of wind shear since all winds must always be light for this phenomenon to occur.
The shear zone condition exists when upper-level winds are reported 5 to 10 knots.

597. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?

3.
2.
1.

598. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The aircraft in position 3 will experience which effect in a microburst encounter?

Decreasing headwind.
Increasing tailwind.
Strong downdraft.

599. Question

Refer to the diagram below. How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?

Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.
Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.
Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.

600. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?

4 and 5.
2 and 3.
3 and 4.

601. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?

Strong tailwind.
Strong updraft.
Significant performance increase.

602. Question

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of

40 knots.
80 knots.
90 knots.

603. Question

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

8,000 feet per minute.
7,000 feet per minute.
6,000 feet per minute.

604. Question

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

605. Question

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should

swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north.
exhibit the same number of degrees of clip as the latitude.
swing freely and indicate known headings.

606. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

607. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

608. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction, then turn a northerly indication but lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

609. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

610. Question

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360-degree turn, with a bank of approximately 15 degrees?

135 degrees through 225 degrees.
90 degrees and 270 degrees.
180 degrees and 0 degrees.

611. Question

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes.
Centrifugal force acting on the compass card.
The magnetic dip characteristic.

612. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

613. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

614. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on west for a short time, the gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.

615. Question

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft

616. Question

If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pilot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?

The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.
The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.
No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.

617. Question

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?

The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent.
The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.
The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.

618. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a coordinated standard-rate turn?

Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.
Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.

619. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?

3.
1.
2.

620. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?

Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.
Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.

621. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?

2.
1.
3.

622. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?

1.
3.
2.

623. Question

What force causes an airplane to turn?

Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
Vertical lift component.
Horizontal lift component.

624. Question

The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon

the horizontal lift component.
the vertical lift component.
centrifugal force.

625. Question

What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal life component in a coordinated turn?

Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.
Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.

626. Question

The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the

thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.
vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.
use of ailerons has increased the drag.

627. Question

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?

Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is decreased.

628. Question

When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?

Decrease the angle of bank.
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
Decrease the angle of attack.

629. Question

When airspeed is decreased ina turn, which must be done to maintain level flight?

Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
Increase the angle of attack.

630. Question

When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?

Increase the pitch attitude and/or increase the angle of bank.
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the pitch attitude.
Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the pitch attitude

631. Question

The primary reason the pitch attitude must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the

thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.
vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.
use of pedals has increased the drag.

632. Question

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 300 degrees?

30 seconds.
40 seconds.
50 seconds.

633. Question

If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135 degrees?

1 minute.
1 minute, 20 seconds.
1 minute, 30 seconds.

634. Question

If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degrees?

1 minute.
2 minutes.
4 minutes.

635. Question

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180 degrees?

1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.

636. Question

If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 180 degrees?

30 seconds.
1 minute.
1 minute, 30 seconds.

637. Question

During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?

Rate of turn would increase and radius of turn would increase.
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would decrease.
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would increase.

638. Question

Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by

decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank.
decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.

639. Question

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 270 degrees?

1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.

640. Question

Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?

10%.
20%.
25%.

641. Question

Conditions that determine pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are:

flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.
airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.
relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.

642. Question

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately

10% of the vertical speed.
30% of the vertical speed.
50 percent of the vertical speed.

643. Question

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using

two bar widths on the attitude indicator.
less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator.
less than a half bar width on the attitude indicator.

644. Question

Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?

Altimeter and VSI.
Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.
Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.

645. Question

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a

full bar width on the attitude indicator.
half bar width on the attitude indicator.
two bar width on the attitude indicator.

646. Question

To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pitch should

first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed.
first reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific rate on the VSI.
simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.

647. Question

To level off at an airspeed higher than the constant speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately

50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.
100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.
150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude

648. Question

To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately

20 feet.
50 feet.
60 feet.

649. Question

While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb of 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.

650. Question

While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb of 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb.
attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
airspeed indication reaches 160 knots.

651. Question

What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

Instrument cross-check.
Power control.
Aircraft control.

652. Question

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

Aircraft control.
Instrument cross-check.
Instrument interpretation.

653. Question

What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?

Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control.

654. Question

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?

Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.
Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

655. Question

Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?

Altimeter and airspeed only.
Altimeter and VSI only.
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

656. Question

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?

Altimeter.
VSI.
Attitude indicator.

657. Question

Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?

Attitude indicator.
Heading indicator or magnetic compass.
Ball of the turn coordinator.

658. Question

While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the

airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.
airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement.
altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.

659. Question

If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude

Turn indicator and VSI.
Airspeed and altimeter.
VSI and airspeed to detect approaching VSI or VMO.

660. Question

Which is the correct sequence for recovery time from a spiraling nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?

Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.
Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
Correct the bank attitude, raise the nose to a level attitude, and reduce power.

661. Question

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant

the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane.
a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.
the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

662. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings.
Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.
Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.

663. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Level wings, add power, lower nose descend to original attitude and heading.
Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.
Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original attitude and heading

664. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.

Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitude indicator.
Vacuum system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitch up to reduce airspeed.
Electrical system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce airspeed.

665. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.

Climbing turn to the right.
Climbing turn to the left.
Descending turn to the right.

666. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.

Climbing turn to the right.
Level turn to the right.
Level turn to the left.

667. Question

If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?

Constant airspeed (Va).
Level flight attitude.
Constant attitude and constant airspeed.

668. Question

If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the

maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.
amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.
airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.

669. Question

When a climb or descent through an inversion of wind-shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?

A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent.
A sudden change in airspeed.
A sudden surge of thrust.

670. Question

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

Step hard on the brakes.
Hold nose up.
Go around.

671. Question

Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane’s tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?

Reverted rubber hydroplaning.
Dynamic hydroplaning.
Viscous hydroplaning.

672. Question

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

Apply full main wheel braking only.
Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.
Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.

673. Question

What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?

No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.

674. Question

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?

When rudder is used for directional controls instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.
During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.
During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.

675. Question

Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

Slant range distance in NM.
Slant range distance in SM.
Line-of-sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.

676. Question

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

0
1
1.3

677. Question

The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at

high altitudes far from the VORTAC.
high altitudes close to the VORTAC.
low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

678. Question

As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME select range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?

Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
No specific distance is specified since the reception is line-of-sight.

679. Question

To find the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for an accuracy check, which publication should you consult?

Airman's information manual.
En Route Low Altitude Chart.
Chart Supplement.

680. Question

When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?

Plus or minus 6 degrees of the designated radial.
Plus 6 degrees or minus 4 degrees of the designated radial.
Plus or minus 4 degrees of the designated radial.

681. Question

When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

090 radial.
180 radial.
360 radial.

682. Question

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?

4 degrees between the wo indicated radials of a VOR.
Plus or minus 4 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR.
6 degrees between the two indicated radials of a VOR.

683. Question

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni-bearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read

within 4 degrees of the selected radial.
within 6 degrees of the selected radial.
0 degrees TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.

684. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR’s are satisfactory?

1
2
4

685. Question

While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?

Plus or minus 4 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR.
4° between the two indicated bearings to a VOR.
Plus or minus 6 degrees when set to identical radials of a VOR.

686. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VORs using one system against the other.

1
2
4

687. Question

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the COi should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
Set the OBS on the designated radial. The COi must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the COi should center with a FROM indication.

688. Question

Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?

On the IAP Chart and in the Chart Supplement.
Only in the Chart Supplement.
In the Chart Supplement and on the A/G Voice Communication Panel of the En Route Low Altitude Chart

689. Question

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?

360° TO and 003° TO, respectively.
001° FROM and 005° FROM, respectively.
176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.

690. Question

What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?

No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
Coded identification, but no navigation indications.
A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.

691. Question

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by

removal of the navigational feature.
broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel.
removal of the identification feature.

692. Question

When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of

20 second intervals at 1020 Hz.
30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
60 second intervals at 1350 Hz.

693. Question

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

The VOR and DME components are operative.
VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service.
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.

694. Question

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

75 NM.
100 NM.
200 NM.

695. Question

You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NAVAIDs should be

80 NM.
40 NM.
70 NM.

696. Question

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI?

4 degrees.
5 degrees.
10 degrees.

697. Question

Full scale deflection of a COi occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

deflects from left side of the scale to right side of the scale.
deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
deflects from half scale left to half scale right.

698. Question

When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?

The first movement of the COi as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.
The moment the TO-FROM indicator becomes blank.
The first positive, complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.

699. Question

Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?

The first flickering of the TO-FROM indicator and COi as the station is approached.
The first full-scale deflection of the COi.
The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.

700. Question

When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the COi from center to the last dot on either side should be between

5 degrees and 6 degrees.
8 degrees and 10 degrees.
10 degrees and 12 degrees.

701. Question

A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?

2 NM.
3 NM.
5 NM.

702. Question

An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the COi would be how far from the selected course centerline?

1-1/2 miles.
2-1/2 miles.
3-1/2 miles.

703. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing left of center?

1
2
3

704. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing right of center?

1
2
3

705. Question

After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?

The airplane is getting closer to the radial.
The OBS is erroneously set on the reciprocal heading.
The airplane is flying away from the radial.

706. Question

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?

2 degrees.
4 degrees.
5 degrees.

707. Question

Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5 degree wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots.

16 minutes and 14.3 NM.
18 minutes and 28.5 NM.
18 minutes and 33.0 NM.

708. Question

Refer to the diagram below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Northeast
Southeast
Southwest

709. Question

Refer to the diagram below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Southwest.
Northwest.
Northeast.

710. Question

Refer to the diagram below. In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Northeast.
Southeast.
Northwest.

711. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?

5.0 NM.
7.5 NM.
10.0 NM.

712. Question

Refer to the diagram below. On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?

R-175.
R-165.
R-345.

713. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

175 degrees.
165 degrees.
345 degrees.

714. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?

1 degree.
2 degrees.
4 degrees.

715. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?

174 degrees.
166 degrees.
335 degrees.

716. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

166 degrees.
346 degrees.
354 degrees.

717. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “A” correspond?

1
8
11

718. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?

10
14
16

719. Question

During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?

The airspeed indicator only.
The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.
The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed indicator.

720. Question

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become blocked, the indicated airspeed will

increase during a climb.
decrease during a climb.
remain constant regardless of altitude change.

721. Question

If the pitot tube ram air pressure hole and drain hole become obstructed, the airspeed indicator will operate

like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends.
like a very sluggish airspeed indicator lagging all the changes by minutes.
normally due to the static port pressure changes.

722. Question

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will

decrease and true altitude will increase.
increase and true altitude will decrease.
increase and true altitude will increase.

723. Question

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.
The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative.
The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative.

724. Question

What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?

The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.
The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.

725. Question

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

The vertical speed to show a climb.
The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent.
The altimeter to read higher than normal.

726. Question

You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you

may not proceed under IFR until the instrument is corrected by an authorized instrument repairman.
may take off under IFR and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.
may take off and proceed under IFR but only in VFR weather conditions.

727. Question

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above

sea level.
the standard datum plane.
ground level.

728. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

9 and 6..
9 only.
6 only.

729. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

11.
5 and 13.
7 and 11.

730. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “D” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

1
10
2

731. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “I” correspond? NOTE: HSI presentations B, C, D, E and I have backcourse settings of 090 degrees, which means there is reverse sensing irrespective of the airplane’s heading

4
12
11

732. Question

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?

Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation.
Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

733. Question

The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for

the cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.
better vertical separation of aircraft.
more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.

734. Question

If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter

on 29.92 inches Hg.
on the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
to the airport elevation.

735. Question

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92″ Hg?

Density.
Pressure.
Standard.

736. Question

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

pressure altitude at sea level.
true altitude at field elevation.
pressure altitude at field elevation.

737. Question

While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92″ Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?

24,000 feet.
25,000 feet.
26,000 feet.

738. Question

The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to

the field elevation.
29.92" Hg.
the current altimeter setting.

739. Question

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?

Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude with local temperature.
Use your computer and correct the field elevation for temperature.

740. Question

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?

Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the pressure altitude on the instrument face.
Set your altimeter to the field elevation and read the pressure altitude from the Kollsman window.
Contact an ATC facility FSS and request the current pressure altitude for the area.

741. Question

At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42″ Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately

7,500 feet.
6,000 feet.
6,500 feet.

742. Question

How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?

The pilot should contact ARTCC at least every 100 NM and request the altimeter setting.
FSS's along with the route broadcast the weather information at 15 minutes past the hour.
ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.

743. Question

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?

Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg.
Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.

744. Question

En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26″ Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?

100 feet MSL.
474 feet MSL.
206 feet below MSL.

745. Question

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?

Indicated.
Pressure.
Calibrated.

746. Question

En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57″ Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?

715 feet.
1,300 feet.
Sea level.

747. Question

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

748. Question

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

At standard temperature.
When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.

749. Question

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92″ Hg?

In warmer than standard air temperature.
In colder than standard air temperature.
When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

750. Question

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?

Air temperature lower than standard.
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
Air temperature warmer than standard.

751. Question

When an altimeter is changed from 30.11″ Hg to 29.92″ Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?

Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

752. Question

Which practical test should e made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?

Check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the instruments.
Check that the altitude of the miniature aircraft is wings level before turning on electrical power.
Turn on the electrical power and listen for an unusual or irregular mechanical noise.

753. Question

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the

ability to resist precession 90° to any applied force.
resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.

754. Question

What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.
After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.

755. Question

What pre-takeoff check should be made of the altitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.
The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.
The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.

756. Question

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an altitude indicator is unreliable?

The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.
The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.

757. Question

How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR en route and IFR approaches?

Flight manual supplement.
GPS operator's manual.
Aircraft owner's handbook.

758. Question

During coordinated turns, which force moves the pendulous vanes of a vacuum-driven altitude indicator resulting in precession of the gyro toward the inside of the turn?

Acceleration.
Deceleration.
Centrifugal.

759. Question

Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as

the principal reference to determine en route waypoints.
an aid to situational awareness.
the primary source of navigation.

760. Question

When may VFR waypoints be used in IFR flight plans?

When GPS is used as the primary source of navigation.
When the waypoints consist of 5 letter identifiers.
VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans.

761. Question

During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved TS0-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities

are only required during the approach portion of the flight.
must be operational along the entire route.
must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage.

762. Question

During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation,

no other navigation system is required.
active monitoring of an alternate navigation system is always required.
the aircraft must have an approved TSO C129 or TSO-C196 and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.

763. Question

What are the primary benefits of satellite-based area navigation (RNAV)?

Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized.
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not required.

764. Question

A handbook GPS is

not authorized for IFR use.
authorized for IFR use under VMC.
authorized for IFR use under IMC until the runway is in sight.

765. Question

Effective navigation by means of GPS includes

determining the current status of all databases.
ensuring that ATC approves your planned route.
relying solely on the GPS for course information.

766. Question

If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the altitude indicator

should immediately show straight-and-level flight.
may show a slight climb and turn.
show a slight skid and climb to the right.

767. Question

Why should pilots understand how to cancel entries made on a GPS?

Because GPS units frequently provide wrong or false information.
Because heavy workloads and turbulence can increase data entry errors.
Because published route names commonly change.

768. Question

Reliance on GPS units

can cause pilots to lose proficiency in performing manual calculations of time, distance, and heading.
will increase a pilot's skill in navigating by visual reference.
does not decrease pilot workload.

769. Question

Before a pilot utilizes a GPS route or procedure, what would be an acceptable method of verifying the GPS database is current?

Check to see if all waypoints on the GPS route match points on procedure charts.
Call FSS and verify that the GPS database is current.
Query the ATC facility issuing your IFR clearance as to database currency

770. Question

During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?

A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.
The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level altitude.

771. Question

When your aircraft is equipped with a TS0-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate.
the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting and no LAAS equipment operational.
the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area.

772. Question

When planning an IFR flight using GPS, the pilot should know that VFR waypoints

are not recognized by the IFR system and will be rejected for IFR routing.
can be used to aid in defining the route in the FAA flight plan if the waypoint name has a 5- letter identifier.
can be used to define direct routing under IFR if they are retrieved from a current database and identified by a four-point star.

773. Question

Prior to using GPS waypoints for RNAV, what can you do to check the current status of the GPS database?

Contact the local FSS and have them verify the current status of the database.
Contact the ATC/ARTCC that issued the En Route Low Altitude chart to verify the current status of the GPS waypoints.
Compare the GPS database to the En Route Low Altitude chart. If they are the same, the GPS database is current.

774. Question

While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?

The approach mode annunciation will disengage.
The altitude mode will disengage.
The altitude and heading modes will disengage.

775. Question

GPS systems certified for IFR operations cannot be used as a substitute for DME receivers

to determine aircraft position or a DME fix at altitudes above 24,000 feet.
to fly a DME arc.
in selecting an alternate that requires use of DME.

776. Question

When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have

a GPS approach with GBAS that is anticipated to be operational or available at the ETA.
a GPS approach if no WMS outage is expected.
an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.

777. Question

Your aircraft is equipped with a WMS enabled GPS unit. While performing a GPS approach, you note an “LNAVN NAV available” indication on the moving map display and horizontal situation indicator. You know that

you can use the LPV minimums line on the IAP chart with this indication.
the indication reflects an artificially created advisory glidepath that you can use to descend to the LNAV MDA.
you can descend to GBAS approach minimums indicated on the IAP.

778. Question

Aircraft operating under IFR with TSO-C129 or TS0-C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have installed

VOR/DME with RNAV capabilities.
a backup GPS receiver.
the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVAIDs along the route.

779. Question

Which of the following is a benefit of flying with an autopilot?

Pilots will not need to worry about controlling airspeed or throttle settings.
Airspace restrictions will automatically be avoided.
Pilot workload is reduced

780. Question

In an autopilot-controlled system, what device actually moves the control surfaces?

Gyroscope.
Servo.
Vacuum pump.

781. Question

To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system

pilots must verify that the aircraft is tracking the intended flight profile.
it is important to ensure that all navigational databases are current.
current navigational charts are required.

782. Question

During normal operation of a vacuum-driven altitude indicator, what altitude indication should you see when rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight-and-level coordinated flight?

A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
A nose-high indication relative to level flight.
The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid.

783. Question

Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an altitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a

180° turn.
270° turn.
360° turn.

784. Question

When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

left turn.
climb.
descent.

785. Question

During normal flight with a vacuum driven attitude indicator, control pressures normally should not move the horizon bar more than

One bar width, with not more than an additional one bar width for normal flight deviations.
One-half bar width, with not more than an additional one bar width for normal flight deviations.
One-half bar width, with not more than an additional one-half bar width for normal flight deviations.

786. Question

When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

climb.
descent.
right turn.

787. Question

Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-and-slip indicator to determine if the

needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon.
needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.
ball will move freely from one end of the tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.

788. Question

What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?

The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered.
The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.

789. Question

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a right turn while taxiing?

The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and ball remains centered.
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the right and the ball moves to the left.
Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.

790. Question

What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?

Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.

791. Question

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?

Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Angle of bank and rate of turn.
Angle of bank.

792. Question

What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?

Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.
Quality of the turn.

793. Question

The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will

indicate the angle of bank.
remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.
increase as angle of bank increases.

794. Question

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?

The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.

795. Question

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator display?

The indicator first shows the rate of banking and, once stabilized, the rate of turn.
Indirectly bank angle and then directly rate of turn.
Indirectly bank angle and rate of turn.

796. Question

In a left turn, correct control coordination is indicated by

The ball of the turn coordinator in the center.
The ball of the turn coordinator to the left of center.
The ball of the turn coordinator to the right of center.

797. Question

Which is true of glass cockpits?

They enhance situational awareness.
They require less frequent training.
They give less reliable information to the pilot than traditional instruments.

798. Question

Which display combines instruments such as an altimeter, attitude indicator, and vertical speed indicator onto one given screen?

Multi-function display.
Primary flight display.
Glass cockpit display.

799. Question

Primary flight displays

primarily present terrain avoidance.
provide traffic information.
include instruments like the attitude indicator.

800. Question

In a Technology Advanced Aircraft, the pilot sees the flight instruments on what?

PFD.
AHRS.
MFD.

801. Question

The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation

are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.
have proven to increase safety in operations.
may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

802. Question

When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits,

greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved.
risk is increased.
risk is decreased.

803. Question

The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to

complacency.
fatigue.
resignation.

804. Question

Automation in aircraft has proven

to present new hazards in its limitations.
that automation is basically flawless.
effective in preventing accidents.

805. Question

An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can

compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge.
offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.
improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts.