Instrument – Chapter 6 – Holding and Instrument Approaches

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

When may you obtain a contact approach?

A Precision Runway Monitor (PRM), approach requires

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2400 RVR?

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action

Refer to figure 232 below. During the LOG RWY 35 missed approach at Duncan/Halliburton Field (DUG), what would be the appropriate entry for the

Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

Refer to figure 139 and figure 141 below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?

Refer to figure 140 , figure 141, and figure 142 below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the left of the ILS course?

Refer to figure 140, figure 141 and figure 142 below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?

Refer to figure 140, figure 141 and figure 142 below. Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the right of the ILS course?

Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VSI in sight?

Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions the glide slope warning flag appears. The   pilot is

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used

When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?

The rate of descent on the glide slope depends on

The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will

When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?

Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on a glide slope?

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

Assume this clearance is received:
“CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.”
When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

Refer to figure 113 below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Refer to figure 113 below. you receive the ATC clearance: “…HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL LEFT TURNS…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Refer to figure 113 below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Refer to figure 113 below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL LEFT TURNS….” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Refer to figure 114 below. A pilot receives this ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Refer to figure 114 below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Refer to figure 114 below. A pilot receives the ATC clearance: “…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…” What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Refer to figure 115 below. You receive this ATC clearance: “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE ONE FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…” You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350 degrees. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

What timing procedure should be used when Performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

Refer to figure 160 and legend 27 below. What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 105 knots ground speed?

Refer to figure 247 and legend 27 below. With a 15 knot headwind while flying the ILS Rwy 9 at RAL with 90 knots, you expect to set power for a

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller­ driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller-driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

The standard IFR climb gradient is

Refer to figure 116 below. You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure? “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…”

How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?

Aircraft approach categories are based on

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSR, that there may be a penetration of the obstacle identification  surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles?

Refer to figure 196 below. What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?

Refer to figure 217 below. During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?

Refer to figure 217 below. The symbol on the plan view of the ILS or LOC RWY 13 procedure at DSM represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Refer to figure 217 below. During the ILS RWY 13 procedures at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

Refer to figure 217 below. During the approach to DSM before you can begin the ILS RWY 13 procedure, the glide slope fails and you are cleared for the LOC RWY 13 at DSM. What altitude minimum applies?

Refer to figure 221 below. The final approach fix for the ILS RWY 24R is located at

Refer to figure 221 below. The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at

During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

The primary reason single pilot operations in reduced visibility on an instrument approach procedure are made more difficult than multi-crew operations is that the pilot must

Refer figure 227 below. Refer to the APA (Centennial) ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is

Refer to figure 244 below. At what minimum altitude should you cross RAMKE intersection during the S-LA RWY 6 approach at ROA?

Refer to figure 228 below. The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 procedure is

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

The primary reason single pilot operations in reduced visibility on an instrument approach procedure are made more difficult than multicrew operations is that the pilot must

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

Refer to figure 230 below. What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?

Refer to figure 230 below. The minimum safe altitude (MSA) for the VOR/DME or GPS-A at 7D3 is geographically centered on what position?

Refer to figure 231 and figure 230 below. You plan to fly to Baldwin for Christmas. What minimum equipment is required for the VOR/ DME or GPS-A procedure, and can you complete the flight?

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

Refer to figure 234 below. What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 18 approach to Lincoln?

Refer to figure 234 below. If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VORTAC at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,200 feet commence?

Refer to figure 234 below. If cleared for an S-LOC 18 approach at Lincoln Municipal from over HUSKR, it means the flight should

On a nonprecision approach, what is the maximum acceptable descent rate during the final stages of the approach (below 1,000 ft. AGL)?

Under the stabilized approach concept, what is the maximum acceptable descent rate during the final stages of an approach?

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

Refer to figure 236 below. What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR Part 91 operator at Dothan, AL using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC  32 approach at 120 knots? (Dual VORs available.)

Refer to figure 236 below. If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should

Refer to figure 242 below. What indication should you get when it is time to turn in bound while in the procedure turn at FEHXE?

Refer to figure 242 below. What is the recommended descent angle for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach?

Refer to figure 242 below. How should the missed approach point be identified when executing the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?

Refer to figure 242 the diagram below. What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?

Refer to figure 242 below. What type of entry is recommended to the missed approach holding pattern if the inbound heading is 050°?

Refer to figure 242 and legend 27 below. You have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach to LIT. At a groundspeed of 105 knots. What are the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?

Refer to figure 240 below.  What type entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern depicted on the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach chart for Price/Carbon County Airport?

Refer to figure 240 below.  At which points may you initiate a descent to the next lower minimum altitude when cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach, from the PUC R-095 IAF (DME operative)?

Refer to figure 240 below. What is the purpose of the 10,600 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?

Refer to figure 240 below. If the DME at PUC airport is inoperative, the airborne DME will

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until

If the plan view on an approach chart does not include a procedure turn barb, that means

Refer to figure 247 below. How should a pilot reverse course to get established on the in bound course of the ILS RWY 9, if radar vectoring to EXPAM?

Refer to figure 247 below. What is the minimum altitude descent procedure if cleared for the S ILS 9 approach from Seal Beach VORTAC?

Refer to figure 175 and figure 174 below. At which point does the JEN.JEN9 arrival begin?

Refer to figure 209 and figure 208 below. At which location or condition does the STELA.STELA1 arrival begin?

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?

Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?

Which is true regarding STARs?

Refer to figure 211 below. For takeoff on RWY 9 using an average groundspeed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum rate of climb as specified on the instrument departure procedure?

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

ATC can issue a STAR

Which of the following statements regarding STARs is most accurate?

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?

On a GPS with WAAS capability, what is the significance of “LNAV+V” being displayed?

When flying a GPS approach procedure, what effect will overriding an automatically selected sensitivity have?

When proper RAIM sensitivity is not available, manually resetting sensitivity to 0.3 NM will

Refer to figure 238 below. If cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over APE VORTAC, what will ATC expect of you?

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM} is not available prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot should

Refer to figure 249 below. When flying the LNAV approach, the missed approach point (MAP) would be indicated by reaching

Refer to figure 249 below. Which of the following best described BEMXI?

Refer to figure 249 below. How do you recognize the missed approach point on the LNAV VNAV approach?

Which of the following is true concerning GPS approaches?

Refer to figure 249 below. The correct GPS entry when told by ATC to “expect the GPS approach to runway 30” is

Refer to figure 249 below. Which type of waypoint is the AGHAN fix?

Refer to figure 249 below.  You are flying the RNAV(GPS} RWY 30 approach to LBF, over BEMXI, and you receive a RAIM error. You should

Refer to figure 249 below. At what point is the pilot authorized to descend below 5,300 feet when cleared to the AJCIZ waypoint from the west?

During a WMS GPS approach, you receive an LNAV+V annunciation on the GPS display. You should

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have