FARs

Question 1 of 200

1. Question

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea

Question 2 of 200

2. Question

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air
Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
Lighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon

Question 3 of 200

3. Question

The definition of nighttime is

A. sunset to sunrise.
B. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C. the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Question 4 of 200

4. Question

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

Normal, utility, acrobatic.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
Landplane, seaplane.

Question 5 of 200

5. Question

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B. Norm al, utility, acrobatic, limited.
C. Transport, restricted, provisional.

Question 6 of 200

6. Question

An ATC clearance provides

A. priority over all other traffic.
B. adequate separation from all traffic.
C. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

Question 7 of 200

7. Question

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

A. VFE·
B. VLOF·
VF C·

Question 8 of 200

8. Question

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

V-le
V-lo
V-fe

Question 9 of 200

9. Question

V-no is defined as the

normal operating range
never-exceed speed
maximum structural cruising speed

Question 10 of 200

10. Question

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

V-a
V-lo
V-ne

Question 11 of 200

11. Question

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

V-y
V-a
V-x

Question 12 of 200

12. Question

V-so is defined as the

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration
stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed

Question 13 of 200

13. Question

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

V-y
V-x
V-a

Question 14 of 200

14. Question

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate
Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

Question 15 of 200

15. Question

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

For informational purposes only
They are mandatory.
They are voluntary

Question 16 of 200

16. Question

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

Yes, under VFR conditions only
Yes, ADs are only voluntary
Yes, if allowed by the AD

Question 17 of 200

17. Question

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

14 CFR Part 91.403
14 CFR Part 43.3
14 CFR Part 61.113

Question 18 of 200

18. Question

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

Student or Recreational pilot
Private or Commercial pilot
None of the answers are correct

Question 19 of 200

19. Question

What preventive maintenance is performed on an aircraft, what paperwork is required?

A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

Question 20 of 200

20. Question

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

Servicing landing gear wheel bearings
Alteration of main seat support brackets
Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used

Question 21 of 200

21. Question

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

Repair of landing gear brace struts.
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

Question 22 of 200

22. Question

Is it legal to fly on the dealer’s registration after a buyer purchased an airplane from that dealer?

Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 30 days.
No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered.
Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 120 days.

Question 23 of 200

23. Question

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
Only when passengers are carried.
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

Question 24 of 200

24. Question

What documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of a biennial flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

Question 25 of 200

25. Question

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
person in a position of authority.
local law enforcement officer.

Question 26 of 200

26. Question

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

Question 27 of 200

27. Question

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which division should this be reported to?

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

Question 28 of 200

28. Question

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on

May 3, 1 year later.
July 31, 1 year later.
July 31, 2 years later.

Question 29 of 200

29. Question

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

Question 30 of 200

30. Question

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 20 this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

August 10, 3 years later.
August 31, 5 years later.
August 31, 3 years later.

Question 31 of 200

31. Question

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3 this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

May 3, 1 year later.
May 31, 1 year later.
May 31, 2 years later.

Question 32 of 200

32. Question

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on

August 10, 2 years later.
August 31, 5 years later.
August 31, 2 years later.

Question 33 of 200

33. Question

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

October 21, 2 years later.
October 31, next year.
October 31, 5 years later.

Question 34 of 200

34. Question

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

Question 35 of 200

35. Question

What is the defnition of a high-performance airplane?

An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

Question 36 of 200

36. Question

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

Question 37 of 200

37. Question

In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have:

made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane.
received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.

Question 38 of 200

38. Question

As pilot in command with a recreational certificate, you must have in your personal possession while exercising the privileges of that certificate

a current logbook endorsement for an accomplished flight review.
a current pilot and medical certificate.
a pilot logbook documenting recent experience requirements.

Question 39 of 200

39. Question

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on October 30 this year, when is the next flight review required?

October 30, 2 years later.
October 31, next year.
October 31, 2 years later.

Question 40 of 200

40. Question

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

a biennial flight review
an annual flight review
a semiannual flight review

Question 41 of 200

41. Question

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8 this year, when is the next flight review required?

August 8, next year.
August 31, 1 year later.
August 31, 2 years later.

Question 42 of 200

42. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

6 calendar months
12 calendar months
24 calendar months

Question 43 of 200

43. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

90 days
12 calendar months
24 calendar months

Question 44 of 200

44. Question

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is

1829
1859
1929

Question 45 of 200

45. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

make and model
category and class, but not type
category, class, and type, if a type rating is required

Question 46 of 200

46. Question

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

sunset to sunrise
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight

Question 47 of 200

47. Question

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

the same category and class of aircraft to be used
the same type of aircraft to be used
any aircraft

Question 48 of 200

48. Question

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

may be touch and go or full stop
must be touch and go
must be to a full stop

Question 49 of 200

49. Question

Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

90 days
60 days
30 days

Question 50 of 200

50. Question

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

30 days after the date of the move
60 days after the date of the move
90 days after the date of the move

Question 51 of 200

51. Question

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of

100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider.
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

Question 52 of 200

52. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months

at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft
at least three flights in a powered glider
at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

Question 53 of 200

53. Question

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

Question 54 of 200

54. Question

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

Question 55 of 200

55. Question

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

If the passengers pay all of the operating expenses.
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
There is no exception.

Question 56 of 200

56. Question

A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft

A current logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
The pilot logbook to show recent experience requirements to serve as pilot in command have been met.
A current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.

Question 57 of 200

57. Question

How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carry on board?

One
Two
Three

Question 58 of 200

58. Question

When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft at night?

When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile.
When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 3 statute miles.
When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 5 statute miles.

Question 59 of 200

59. Question

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may

be paid for the operating expenses of a flight.
not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

Question 60 of 200

60. Question

When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport?

After receiving ground and flight instructions on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement.
After attaining 100 hours of pilot-in-command time and a logbook endorsement.
12 calendar months after receiving his or her recreational pilot certificate and a logbook endorsement.

Question 61 of 200

61. Question

In regard to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may

fly for compensation or hire within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport with a logbook endorsement.
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight from a passenger.

Question 62 of 200

62. Question

Refer to Figure 22 on page 135.) (Refer to area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance

3 miles and clear ofclouds.
3 miles and 1,000 fee above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

Question 63 of 200

63. Question

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certificated for a maximum of how many occupants?

Two
Three
Four

Question 64 of 200

64. Question

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of

160
180
200

Question 65 of 200

65. Question

With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?

One hour before sunrise.
At sunrise.
At the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Question 66 of 200

66. Question

What exception, if any, permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?

If the passenger pays no more than the operating expenses.
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
There is no exception.

Question 67 of 200

67. Question

When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?

Anytime the control tower is in operation.
When the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the surface visibility is at least 2 miles.
After receiving training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor.

Question 68 of 200

68. Question

May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?

Yes, if the flight is only incidental to that business.
Yes, providing the aircraft does not carry a person or property for compensation time.
No, it is not allowed.

Question 69 of 200

69. Question

Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?

Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 2,500 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.
Any time when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet, and the visibility is more than 1 mile.
Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.

Question 70 of 200

70. Question

When must a recreational pilot have a pilot in-command flight check?

Every 400 hours
Every 180 days
If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days

Question 71 of 200

71. Question

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds
3 miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds

Question 72 of 200

72. Question

Refer to Figure 26 on page 138.) (Refer to area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

1 mile and clear of clouds
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds
3 miles and clear of clouds

Question 73 of 200

73. Question

(Refer to Figure 26 on page 138.) (Refer to area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are

1 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds
3 miles and clear of clouds
1 mile and clear of clouds

Question 74 of 200

74. Question

A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least

3 miles
4 miles
5 miles

Question 75 of 200

75. Question

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

1 mile
3 miles
5 miles

Question 76 of 200

76. Question

If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight?

2021
2043
2121

Question 77 of 200

77. Question

Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?

The buyer pays all of the operating expenses.
The flight is not outside the United States.
None.

Question 78 of 200

78. Question

When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?

If the pilot has logged 100 hours of flight time in powered aircraft.
If the pilot has an endorsement in his or her pilot logbook from an authorized flight instructor.
It is not allowed.

Question 79 of 200

79. Question

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equiped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?

1200
7600
7700

Question 80 of 200

80. Question

When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feel MSL?

When 2,000 feet AGL or below
When 2,500 feet AGL or below
When outside of controlled airspace

Question 81 of 200

81. Question

During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feel MSL?

1 mile
3 miles
5 miles

Question 82 of 200

82. Question

During daytime, what is the minimum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

1 mile
3 miles
5 miles

Question 83 of 200

83. Question

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 MSL
1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 MSL.
the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

Question 84 of 200

84. Question

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

Federal Aviation Administration.
pilot in command.
aircraft manufacturer.

Question 85 of 200

85. Question

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A certificated aircraft mechanic.
The pilot in command.
The owner or operator.

Question 86 of 200

86. Question

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

On the Airworthiness Certificate.
In the current FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placard, or any combination thereof.
In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

Question 87 of 200

87. Question

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?

Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual.
In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

Question 88 of 200

88. Question

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

Only in an emergency.
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.

Question 89 of 200

89. Question

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Question 90 of 200

90. Question

Under what conditions, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
Under no condition.

Question 91 of 200

91. Question

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

8 hours.
12 hours.
24 hours.

Question 92 of 200

92. Question

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

the designation of an alternate airport.
a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Question 93 of 200

93. Question

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

review traffic control light signal procedures.
check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Question 94 of 200

94. Question

What preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

Question 95 of 200

95. Question

For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must

file a VFR flight plan with the nearest flight service.
obtain and squawk a discrete transponder code.
determine runway lengths at airports of intended use.

Question 96 of 200

96. Question

Flight crewmembers are requred to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

takeoffs and landings.
all flight conditions.
flight in turbulent air.

Question 97 of 200

97. Question

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Question 98 of 200

98. Question

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belt fastened for the entire flight.
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.

Question 99 of 200

99. Question

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
all flight conditions.
flight in turbulent air.

Question 100 of 200

100. Question

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

Question 101 of 200

101. Question

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

over a densely populated area.
in Class D airspace under special VFR.
except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each airport.

Question 102 of 200

102. Question

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

The airship.
The airplane.
Each pilot should alter course to the right.

Question 103 of 200

103. Question

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft.

that has the other to its right.
that is the least maneuverable.
at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

Question 104 of 200

104. Question

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Glider.
Airship.
Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

Question 105 of 200

105. Question

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A balloon.
An aircraft in distress.
An aircraft on final approach to land.

Question 106 of 200

106. Question

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

The airplane pilot should give way to the left.
The glider pilot should give way to the right.
Both pilots should give way to the right.

Question 107 of 200

107. Question

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

The faster aircraft shall give way.
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

Question 108 of 200

108. Question

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Airship.
Aircraft towing other aircraft.
Gyroplane.

Question 109 of 200

109. Question

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

The motorboat.
The seaplane.
Both should alter course to the right.

Question 110 of 200

110. Question

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

180 knots.
200 knots.
250 knots.

Question 111 of 200

111. Question

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

200 knots.
250 knots.
288 knots.

Question 112 of 200

112. Question

When flyinig in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots
230 knots
250 knots

Question 113 of 200

113. Question

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

200 knots
230 knots
250 knots

Question 114 of 200

114. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

Question 115 of 200

115. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft.
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Question 116 of 200

116. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

500 feet
700 feet
1,000 feet

Question 117 of 200

117. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

Question 118 of 200

118. Question

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimete setting?

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.

Question 119 of 200

119. Question

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
The elevation of the departure area.
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

Question 120 of 200

120. Question

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

14,500 feet MSL
18,000 feet MSL
24,000 feet MSL

Question 121 of 200

121. Question

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

Within 7 days
Within 10 days
Upon request

Question 122 of 200

122. Question

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC
Immediately
Within 7 days

Question 123 of 200

123. Question

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.

Question 124 of 200

124. Question

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under whcih situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

When operating in Class A airspace at night.
If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions.
In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

Question 125 of 200

125. Question

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

when the clearance states, "at pilot's discretion."
an emergency.
if the clearance contains a restriction.

Question 126 of 200

126. Question

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

Take no special action since you are pilot in command.
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
File a report to the FAA Administration, as soon as possible.

Question 127 of 200

127. Question

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

Class C
Class E
Class G

Question 128 of 200

128. Question

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

an operable VOR or TACAN receiver.
instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.
an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

Question 129 of 200

129. Question

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Recreational Pilot Certificate.
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Question 130 of 200

130. Question

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.
With the controlling agency's authorization.
Regulations do not allow this.

Question 131 of 200

131. Question

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Class A
Class B
Class C

Question 132 of 200

132. Question

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Question 133 of 200

133. Question

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Question 134 of 200

134. Question

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.

Question 135 of 200

135. Question

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.

Question 136 of 200

136. Question

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feeet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
5 miles and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

Question 137 of 200

137. Question

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

1,000 feet.
2,000 feet.
1 mile.

Question 138 of 200

138. Question

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

1 mile.
3 miles.
4 miles.

Question 139 of 200

139. Question

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

remain clear of clouds.
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

Question 140 of 200

140. Question

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

Question 141 of 200

141. Question

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.

Question 142 of 200

142. Question

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.

Question 143 of 200

143. Question

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

Question 144 of 200

144. Question

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

Question 145 of 200

145. Question

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

Question 146 of 200

146. Question

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.

Question 147 of 200

147. Question

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

Question 148 of 200

148. Question

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.
2,000 feet.

Question 149 of 200

149. Question

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least

1,000 feet and 1 mile.
1,000 feet and 3 miles.
2,500 feet and 3 miles.

Question 150 of 200

150. Question

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

Automated Flight Service Station.
Air Traffic Control Tower.
Air Route Traffic Control Center.

Question 151 of 200

151. Question

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

Question 152 of 200

152. Question

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
flight visibility is at least 3 miles.

Question 153 of 200

153. Question

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

Question 154 of 200

154. Question

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

1 mile flight visibility.
1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.

Question 155 of 200

155. Question

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic curse of 175? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.

4,500 feet.
5,000 feet.
5,500 feet.

Question 156 of 200

156. Question

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135?

Even thousand.
Even thousand plus 500 feet.
Odd thousand plus 500 feet.

Question 157 of 200

157. Question

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?

4,000 feet.
4,500 feet.
5,000 feet.

Question 158 of 200

158. Question

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

magnetic heading of 0 degrees through 179 degrees'.
magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
true course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.

Question 159 of 200

159. Question

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.

Question 160 of 200

160. Question

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.

Question 161 of 200

161. Question

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

Anytime.
At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

Question 162 of 200

162. Question

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

Every 24 months.
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.

Question 163 of 200

163. Question

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

After one-half the battery's useful life.
During each annual and 100-hour inspection.
Every 24 calendar months.

Question 164 of 200

164. Question

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
Sunset to sunrise.

Question 165 of 200

165. Question

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

12,500 feet MSL
14,000 feet MSL
15,000 feet MSL

Question 166 of 200

166. Question

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

the entire flight time at those altitudes.
that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
that fight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.

Question 167 of 200

167. Question

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).

Question 168 of 200

168. Question

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
Class D airspace.
Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 169 of 200

169. Question

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.

Question 170 of 200

170. Question

A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

60 days.
90 days.
180 days.

Question 171 of 200

171. Question

An approved parachute constructed of natural fibers may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

60 days.
120 days.
180 days.

Question 172 of 200

172. Question

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

Flight under instrument flight rules.
Flight over a densely populated area.
Flight within Class D airspace.

Question 173 of 200

173. Question

Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
from the primary airport within Class D airspace.

Question 174 of 200

174. Question

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with?

Owner or operator.
Repair station.
Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).

Question 175 of 200

175. Question

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

pilot in command.
owner or operator.
mechanic who performs the work.

Question 176 of 200

176. Question

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

Owner or operator
Certified mechanic
Repair station.

Question 177 of 200

177. Question

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

owner or operator.
pilot in command.
mechanic who performed the work.

Question 178 of 200

178. Question

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

by any private pilot.
with passengers on board.
for compensation or hire.

Question 179 of 200

179. Question

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a

Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
Private Pilot Certificate.
Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate.

Question 180 of 200

180. Question

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

3312.5 hours
3402.5 hours
3395.5 hours

Question 181 of 200

181. Question

An aircraft’s annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than

July 1, next year.
July 13, next year.
July 31, next year.

Question 182 of 200

182. Question

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

Annual condition and 100-hou inspections.
Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.
Annual condition and 50-hour inspections.

Question 183 of 200

183. Question

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

1349.6 hours
1359.36 hours
1369.6 hours

Question 184 of 200

184. Question

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

6 calendar months.
12 calendar months.
24 calendar months.

Question 185 of 200

185. Question

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

September 30 2015.
September 1, 2016.
September 30, 2016.

Question 186 of 200

186. Question

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate.
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.

Question 187 of 200

187. Question

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the

Airworthiness Certificate.
Registration Certificate.
aircraft maintenance records.

Question 188 of 200

188. Question

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?

Aircraft maintenance records.
Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.
Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.

Question 189 of 200

189. Question

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.
log book endorsement from a flight instructor.
review of the maintenance records.

Question 190 of 200

190. Question

The party directly responsible for the pre-takeoff briefing of passengers is the

Pilot in Command.
Safety Officer.
Ground Crew.

Question 191 of 200

191. Question

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of

all passengers.
the pilot.
a crewmember.

Question 192 of 200

192. Question

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts is the responsibility of

all passengers.
the pilot.
a crewmember.

Question 193 of 200

193. Question

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts is the responsibility of

all passengers.
the pilot in command.
the right seat pilot.

Question 194 of 200

194. Question

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

immediately.
within 48 hours.
within 7 days.

Question 195 of 200

195. Question

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

An in-flight generator/alternator failure.
An in-flight fire.
an in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.

Question 196 of 200

196. Question

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
An in-flight radio communications failure.
An in-flight generator or alternator failure.

Question 197 of 200

197. Question

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A forced landing due to engine failure.
Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Question 198 of 200

198. Question

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

Question 199 of 200

199. Question

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?

5
7
10

Question 200 of 200

200. Question

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

within 7 days.
within 10 days.
when requested.

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