CFI Airports, Airspace and ATC

Question 1 of 82

1. Question

A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates

3,000 feet of runway remaining.
1,000 feet of runway remaining.
the beginning of the runway overrun area.

Question 2 of 82

2. Question

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

008° and 026° true.
080° and 260° true.
080° and 260° magnetic.

Question 3 of 82

3. Question

What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?

That area is restricted solely to taxi operations.
That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.
That portion of the runway is the designated touchdown zone.

Question 4 of 82

4. Question

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
Denotes intersecting runways.

Question 5 of 82

5. Question

What is the purpose of the runway hold position sign?

Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
Denotes taxiway location.

Question 6 of 82

6. Question

What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?

Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
Allows an aircraft permission to taxi onto the runway.
Holds aircraft short of the runway.

Question 7 of 82

7. Question

What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?

Delineates entrance to runway from a taxiway.
Delineates beginning of runway available for landing when pavement is aligned with runway on approach side.
Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.

Question 8 of 82

8. Question

An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity?

5 clicks.
3 clicks.
None, the MIRL is left on all night.

Question 9 of 82

9. Question

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Indicates direction to take-off runway.

Question 10 of 82

10. Question

The “ILS critical area boundary” sign identifies

the area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
the edge of the ILS critical area.
the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

Question 11 of 82

11. Question

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
Identifies direction to take-off runways.

Question 12 of 82

12. Question

What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?

Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.
Provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

Question 13 of 82

13. Question

The “No Entry” sign identifies

paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.
an area that does not continue beyond intersection.
the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

Question 14 of 82

14. Question

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

Indicates direction to take-off runway.
Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

Question 15 of 82

15. Question

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

Provides general taxiing direction to named runway.
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

Question 16 of 82

16. Question

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

may continue taxiing.
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

Question 17 of 82

17. Question

What does a destination sign identify?

Entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
Direction to takeoff runways.
Runway on which an aircraft is located.

Question 18 of 82

18. Question

What is the purpose of the hold position markings on a holding bay?

Identifies the taxiway on which the aircraft is located.
Holds aircraft on the holding bay when there is an operational need.
Identifies an area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.

Question 19 of 82

19. Question

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

45 ° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.

Question 20 of 82

20. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is

left-hand for Rwy 17 and right-hand for Rwy 35.
right-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 9.
left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.

Question 21 of 82

21. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

Right-hand traffic on Rwy 17.
Left-hand traffic on Rwy 27 or Rwy 35.
Left-hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right-hand traffic on Rwy 27.

Question 22 of 82

22. Question

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

Inward, upward, and around each tip.
Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
Outward, upward, and around each tip.

Question 23 of 82

23. Question

What effect would a crosswind of 5 knots or less have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aircraft that had just taken off?

A light crosswind would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
The upwind vortex would tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
Both vortices would move downwind at a greater rate than if the surface wind was directly down the landing runway.

Question 24 of 82

24. Question

Due to the effects of wake turbulence, what minimum separation does ATC provide for a small aircraft landing behind a heavy jet

4 miles.
5 miles.
6 miles.

Question 25 of 82

25. Question

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by

remaining below the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

Question 26 of 82

26. Question

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

Beyond the jet's touchdown point.
At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point.

Question 27 of 82

27. Question

Which statement is true regarding wingtip vortices?

Helicopter rotors generate downwash turbulence only, not vortices.
Vortices generated by helicopters in forward flight are similar to those generated by fixed wing aircraft.
Vortices tend to remain level for a period of time before sinking below the generating aircraft's flightpath.

Question 28 of 82

28. Question

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

25 miles.
20 miles.
10 miles.

Question 29 of 82

29. Question

When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on

122.9 MHz.
123.0 MHz.
123.6 MHz.

Question 30 of 82

30. Question

The UNICOM frequency at airports with a control tower is

123.0
122.95
122.8

Question 31 of 82

31. Question

A military airfield can be identified by

a white and red rotating beacon.
white flashing sequence lights (strobes).
a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

Question 32 of 82

32. Question

A slightly below glidepath indication on a 2-bar VASI glidepath is indicated by

two red lights over two white lights.
two white lights over two red lights.
two red lights over two more red lights.

Question 33 of 82

33. Question

Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

If below the glidepath, the near bars will be red and the far bars white.
If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red and the far bars will appear white.
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white.

Question 34 of 82

34. Question

When on the upper glidepath of a 3-bar VASI, what would be the colors of the lights?

All three sets of lights would be white.
The near bar is white and the middle and far bars are red.
The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red.

Question 35 of 82

35. Question

The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold?

4NM.
6 NM.
10 NM.

Question 36 of 82

36. Question

A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by

four red lights.
one red light and three white lights.
one white light and three red lights.

Question 37 of 82

37. Question

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

NOTAM's.
Chart Supplement.
Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.

Question 38 of 82

38. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At what time of day does the tower shut down at Dallas Executive?

0330Z.
1400Z.
2100 local.

Question 39 of 82

39. Question

Refer to the diagram below. On what frequency can a pilot activate the approach lights at Dallas Executive when the control tower is not in operation?

120.15
127.25
122.95

Question 40 of 82

40. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Select the correct statement concerning Dallas Love Field.

Right traffic is in effect for all runways.
The runway gradient for Rwy 18 is less than .3 percent.
The touchdown zone elevation for Rwy 13R is 52 feet.

Question 41 of 82

41. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the elevation of the Maverick VORTAC?

450 feet MSL.
540 feet MSL
660 feet MSL.

Question 42 of 82

42. Question

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

Question 43 of 82

43. Question

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.
the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

Question 44 of 82

44. Question

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

filed a IFR flight plan.
received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

Question 45 of 82

45. Question

A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions established

for training purposes in the vicinity of military bases.
from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S.
over either domestic or international waters for the purpose of separating military from civilian aircraft.

Question 46 of 82

46. Question

When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot

must operate only when military activity is not being conducted.
should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
must obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.

Question 47 of 82

47. Question

A military operations area (MOA) is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of

separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.
military services conducting VFR low altitude navigation, tactical training, and flight testing.
denoting the existence of unusual hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

Question 48 of 82

48. Question

If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by

VR and a three digit number only.
JR or VR and a four digit number.
IR or VR and a three digit number.

Question 49 of 82

49. Question

Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is

never permitted.
permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity.
permitted at certain times, but only with prior permission from the appropriate authority.

Question 50 of 82

50. Question

When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation

The airspace designation normally will not change.
The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

Question 51 of 82

51. Question

Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including,

3,000 feet MSL.
14,500 feet MSL.
the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

Question 52 of 82

52. Question

Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is

14,500 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.
18,000 feet AGL.

Question 53 of 82

53. Question

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

10,000 feet MSL.
14,500 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.

Question 54 of 82

54. Question

The vertical limit of Class D airspace will normally be designated at

the base of the Class E airspace.
up to, and including, 2,500 feet AGL.
up to, but not including, 3,000 feet AGL

Question 55 of 82

55. Question

Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?

2,500 feet.
3,000 feet.
4,000 feet.

Question 56 of 82

56. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas of this Class C airspace?

3,000 feet AGL.
3,000 feet above airport.
4,000 feet above airport.

Question 57 of 82

57. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the normal radius of the outer area (area B)?

10 NM.
20 NM.
25 NM.

Question 58 of 82

58. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?

5 miles.
10 miles.
15 miles.

Question 59 of 82

59. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the radius of the surface area (circle C)?

5 miles.
10 miles.
15 miles.

Question 60 of 82

60. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the shelf area?

700 feet AGL.
1,200 feet MSL.
1,200 feet AGL.

Question 61 of 82

61. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Class C airspace usually extends up to

3,000 feet MSL.
3,000 feet above airport.
4,000 feet above airport.

Question 62 of 82

62. Question

To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must

monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
secure prior approval from ATC before takeoff at the airport.

Question 63 of 82

63. Question

All operations within Class C airspace must be in

compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
accordance with instrument flight rules.
an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

Question 64 of 82

64. Question

What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way communications.
Two-way communications and transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.
Two-way communications, transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability, and VOR.

Question 65 of 82

65. Question

If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled

Select 7700 on your transponder, fly a normal traffic pattern, and land.
Flash your landing lights and make shallow banks in opposite directions while circling the airport.
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

Question 66 of 82

66. Question

Which transponder code should the pilot of a civilian aircraft never use?

7500
7600
7777

Question 67 of 82

67. Question

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

0700, 1700, 7000.
1200, 1500, 7000.
7500, 7600, 7700.

Question 68 of 82

68. Question

Most midair collision accidents occur during

hazy days within the traffic pattern environment.
clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids.
night conditions during simulated instrument flight.

Question 69 of 82

69. Question

Which technique should a student be taught to 5can for traffic to the right and left during straight-and- 1evel flight?

Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left
Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

Question 70 of 82

70. Question

The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to

turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region.
avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.
avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect of ground lights on the eyes.

Question 71 of 82

71. Question

ATC advises traffic 12 o’clock. This advisory is relative to your

true course.
ground track.
magnetic heading.

Question 72 of 82

72. Question

What is an effective way to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic pattern?

Enter the pattern in a descent.
Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area.
Rely on radio reports from other aircraft who may be operating in the traffic pattern.

Question 73 of 82

73. Question

Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within

Class 8 airspace.
10 miles of any airport.
5 miles of a controlled airport.

Question 74 of 82

74. Question

If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and DME, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is

A
I
U

Question 75 of 82

75. Question

How long will a Flight Service Station hold a VFR flight plan past the proposed departure time?

30 minutes.
1 hour.
2 hours.

Question 76 of 82

76. Question

If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and RNAV, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is

A
I
Y

Question 77 of 82

77. Question

How much time do you have to close a VFR flight plan before search and rescue procedures are initiated

One hour after your ATA.
One-half hour after landing.
One-half hour after your ETA.

Question 78 of 82

78. Question

When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in

FDC NOTAMs.
NOTAM (D) distribution.
The Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP).

Question 79 of 82

79. Question

When information is disseminated for a navigational facility, it will be located in

FDC NOTAMs.
NOTAM (D) distribution.
The Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP).

Question 80 of 82

80. Question

When information is disseminated for a temporary flight restriction (TFR), it will be located in

FDC NOTAMs.
NOTAM (D) distribution.
The Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP).

Question 81 of 82

81. Question

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
All current NOTAMs (D) and military NOTAMs.
Pointer NOTAMs and FDC NOTAMs.

Question 82 of 82

82. Question

Public figures are protected by

special use airspace.
prohibited areas.
temporary flight restriction.