Instrument – Chapter 5 – Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace
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Question 1 of 114
1. Question
Refer to figure 138 below. What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway, and the threshold lights?
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Question 2 of 114
2. Question
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
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Question 3 of 114
3. Question
Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
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Question 4 of 114
4. Question
Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?
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Question 5 of 114
5. Question
Refer to figure 137 below. What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?
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Question 6 of 114
6. Question
Destination signs indicate
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Question 7 of 114
7. Question
The “ILS critical area boundary” sign identifies the
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Question 8 of 114
8. Question
The “runway hold position” sign denotes
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Question 9 of 114
9. Question
The “No Entry” sign identifies
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Question 10 of 114
10. Question
What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
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Question 11 of 114
11. Question
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
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Question 12 of 114
12. Question
Refer to figure 254 below. Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
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Question 13 of 114
13. Question
Refer to figure 254 below. While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?
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Question 14 of 114
14. Question
Refer to figure 254 below. Which sign indicates you are holding short of the ILS critical area?
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Question 15 of 114
15. Question
A runway exit sign
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Question 16 of 114
16. Question
“Runway hold position” markings on the taxiway
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Question 17 of 114
17. Question
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates
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Question 18 of 114
18. Question
Within aircraft movement areas, “destination signs” identify the
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Question 19 of 114
19. Question
Refer to figure 94 below. Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
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Question 20 of 114
20. Question
Refer to figure 94 below. What colors are runway holding position signs?
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Question 21 of 114
21. Question
Refer to figure 94 below. What colors are runway holding position signs?
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Question 22 of 114
22. Question
Refer to figure 94 below. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
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Question 23 of 114
23. Question
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
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Question 24 of 114
24. Question
Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
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Question 25 of 114
25. Question
Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?
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Question 26 of 114
26. Question
Refer to figure 135 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
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Question 27 of 114
27. Question
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
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Question 28 of 114
28. Question
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
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Question 29 of 114
29. Question
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA the pilot should
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Question 30 of 114
30. Question
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
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Question 31 of 114
31. Question
Refer to figure 136 below. An “on glidepath” indication is
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Question 32 of 114
32. Question
Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8 degree) indication?
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Question 33 of 114
33. Question
Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5 degrees?
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Question 34 of 114
34. Question
Refer to figure 136 below. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?
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Question 35 of 114
35. Question
Refer to figure 162 below. You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates
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Question 36 of 114
36. Question
The primary purpose of runway and identifier lights installed at many airfields is to provide
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Question 37 of 114
37. Question
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?0
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Question 38 of 114
38. Question
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
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Question 39 of 114
39. Question
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
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Question 40 of 114
40. Question
Refer to figure 158 below. With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner’s vortices.
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Question 41 of 114
41. Question
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?
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Question 42 of 114
42. Question
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
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Question 43 of 114
43. Question
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
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Question 44 of 114
44. Question
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
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Question 45 of 114
45. Question
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
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Question 46 of 114
46. Question
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
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Question 47 of 114
47. Question
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
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Question 48 of 114
48. Question
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
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Question 49 of 114
49. Question
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs?
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Question 50 of 114
50. Question
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
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Question 51 of 114
51. Question
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
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Question 52 of 114
52. Question
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
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Question 53 of 114
53. Question
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
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Question 54 of 114
54. Question
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?
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Question 55 of 114
55. Question
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
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Question 56 of 114
56. Question
Refer to figure 1 below. Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?
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Question 57 of 114
57. Question
Refer to figure 1 below. What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?
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Question 58 of 114
58. Question
Refer to figure 1 below. The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?
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Question 59 of 114
59. Question
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?
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Question 60 of 114
60. Question
You may cancel an IFR flight plan
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Question 61 of 114
61. Question
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower?
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Question 62 of 114
62. Question
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
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Question 63 of 114
63. Question
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
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Question 64 of 114
64. Question
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?
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Question 65 of 114
65. Question
An abbreviated departure clearance “…CLEARED AS FILED…” will always contain the name
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Question 66 of 114
66. Question
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that
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Question 67 of 114
67. Question
On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED–MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND — SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE — DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain theCorrectIncorrect -
Question 68 of 114
68. Question
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”?
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Question 69 of 114
69. Question
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”
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Question 70 of 114
70. Question
What is the rule or a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?”
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Question 71 of 114
71. Question
A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
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Question 72 of 114
72. Question
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
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Question 73 of 114
73. Question
During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departure
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Question 74 of 114
74. Question
When should you transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
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Question 75 of 114
75. Question
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
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Question 76 of 114
76. Question
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
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Question 77 of 114
77. Question
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
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Question 78 of 114
78. Question
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
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Question 79 of 114
79. Question
What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?
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Question 80 of 114
80. Question
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on
established airways?CorrectIncorrect -
Question 81 of 114
81. Question
During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
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Question 82 of 114
82. Question
While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?
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Question 83 of 114
83. Question
You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should
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Question 84 of 114
84. Question
What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)
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Question 85 of 114
85. Question
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that
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Question 86 of 114
86. Question
During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?
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Question 87 of 114
87. Question
What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?
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Question 88 of 114
88. Question
What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within the outer area of Class C airspace?
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Question 89 of 114
89. Question
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
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Question 90 of 114
90. Question
Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of
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Question 91 of 114
91. Question
When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the
destination?CorrectIncorrect -
Question 92 of 114
92. Question
What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?
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Question 93 of 114
93. Question
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
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Question 94 of 114
94. Question
You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530 . At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
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Question 95 of 114
95. Question
You are !n IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?
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Question 96 of 114
96. Question
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?
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Question 97 of 114
97. Question
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?
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Question 98 of 114
98. Question
While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under
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Question 99 of 114
99. Question
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?
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Question 100 of 114
100. Question
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with
two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.CorrectIncorrect -
Question 101 of 114
101. Question
What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?
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Question 102 of 114
102. Question
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?
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Question 103 of 114
103. Question
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace extends from
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Question 104 of 114
104. Question
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
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Question 105 of 114
105. Question
Class G airspace is that airspace where
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Question 106 of 114
106. Question
MCAs are established to
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Question 107 of 114
107. Question
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
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Question 108 of 114
108. Question
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
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Question 109 of 114
109. Question
Refer to figure 162 below. You are cleared to land on RWY 16L at Eugene Mahlon Sweet Field. As you break out of the clouds, you are lined up with the white lights down the center of the runway, which lets you know that you
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Question 110 of 114
110. Question
Refer to figure 251 below. What is the slope of RWY 9?
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Question 111 of 114
111. Question
Refer to figure 251 below. When lined up for takeoff on runway 4, the compass and heading indicator should read a heading of about
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Question 112 of 114
112. Question
Refer to figure 251 below. When lined up for takeoff on runway 18, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about
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Question 113 of 114
113. Question
Refer to figure 251 below. What is the actual heading of the north runway at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH) airport?
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Question 114 of 114
114. Question
Refer to figure 251 below. When lined up for takeoff on RWY 27, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about
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