quiz – My Blog

1. Question

Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation

varies over time as the agonic line shifts.
varies for different headings of the same aircraft.
is the same for all aircraft in the same locality.

2. Question

Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during

abrupt maneuvers.
normal operations.
flight in smooth air.

3. Question

Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided?

Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure.
Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered.
Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable.

4. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the

ultimate load factor.
positive limit load factor.
airspeed range for normal operations.

5. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the

upper limit of the yellow arc.
upper limit of the green arc.
blue radial line.

6. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the

green arc.
yellow arc.
white arc.

7. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Point C references

Vne
Vno
Va

8. Question

Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?

The never-exceed speed.
The power-off stall speed.
The maneuvering speed.

9. Question

Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for

installation and instrument error.
instrument error.
non-standard temperature.

10. Question

True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for

installation or instrument error.
non-standard temperature.
altitude and nonstandard temperature.

11. Question

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?

It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.
It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.
It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.

12. Question

What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator

is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven.
indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.

13. Question

What is a benefit of flying with a glass cockpit?

There is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight.
Situational awareness is increased.
Terrain avoidance is guaranteed.

14. Question

What steps must be taken when flying with glass cockpits to ensure safe flight?

Use the moving map for primary means of navigation, use the MFD to check engine systems and weather, back up with supplementary forms of information.
Regularly scan each item on the PFD, confirm on the MFD.
Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information.

15. Question

An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can

compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge.
offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.
improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts.

16. Question

Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft

gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.
descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment.
throttle is advanced very abruptly.

17. Question

Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel

decreases while the volume of air decreases.
remains constant while the volume of air decreases.
remains constant while the density of air decreases.

18. Question

What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases?

The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases.
The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases.
The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant.

19. Question

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to

decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density.
decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density.
increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

20. Question

At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the

engine to overheat.
fouling of spark plugs.
engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.

21. Question

The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the

throttle.
manifold pressure.
mixture control.

22. Question

Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.
weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor.

23. Question

The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which

cylinder head temperatures are the coolest.
the most power can be obtained for any given throttle setting.
engine power can be obtained with the highest manifold pressure or throttle setting.

24. Question

The mixture control can be adjusted, which

prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes.
regulates the amount of airflow through the carburetor's venturi.
prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming lean as the airplane climbs.

25. Question

What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance?

As air density decreases, thrust increases.
As temperature increases, thrust increases.
As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

26. Question

Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat?

It enriches the fuel/air mixture.
It leans the fuel/air mixture.
It has no effect on the fuel/air mixture.

27. Question

Applying carburetor heat will

not affect the mixture.
lean the fuel/air mixture.
enrich the fuel/air mixture.

28. Question

Leaving the carburetor heat on during takeoff

leans the mixture for more power on takeoff.
will decrease the takeoff distance.
will increase the ground roll.

29. Question

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

there is an explosive increase of fuel caused by too rich a fuel/air mixture.
the spark plugs receive an electrical jolt caused by a short in the wiring.
the unburned fuel/air charge in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous combustion.

30. Question

Detonation can be caused by

a "rich" mixture.
low engine temperatures.
using a lower grade of fuel than recommended.

31. Question

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

instantaneous combustion.
detonation.
pre-ignition.

32. Question

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when

the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

33. Question

Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues to run with no interruption; this

is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cutoff.
should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position.
is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong.

34. Question

A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to

idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off.
add full power, while holding the brakes, and momentarily turn off the ignition.
run on one magneto, lean the mixture, and look for a rise in manifold pressure.

35. Question

The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is

carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs.
a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing.
a broken magneto ground wire.

36. Question

A detuning of engine crankshaft counterweights is a source of overstress that may be caused by

rapid opening and closing of the throttle.
carburetor ice forming on the throttle valve.
operating with an excessively rich fuel/air mixture.

37. Question

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine

will not operate on one magneto.
cannot be started with the switch in the BOTH position.
could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder.

38. Question

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to

decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.
decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than normal approach to be made.

39. Question

Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?

The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.
The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.
Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

40. Question

Some aircraft are fitted with wing spoilers to decrease

drag.
takeoff speed.
lift.

41. Question

An aircraft airfoil is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the airfoil's surface.
vacuum below the airfoil's surface and greater air pressure above the airfoil's surface.
higher air pressure below the airfoil's surface and lower air pressure above the airfoil's surface

42. Question

A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the

wingtip , with the stall progression toward the wing root.
wing root, with the stall progression toward the wingtip.
center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip.

43. Question

The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the

angle of incidence of the wing.
amount of airflow above and below the wing.
distribution of pressures acting on the wing.

44. Question

Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause

the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal.
the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.
drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.

45. Question

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's

lift, airspeed, and drag.
lift, airspeed, and CG.
lift and airspeed, but not drag.

46. Question

When a pilot increases the angle of attack on a symmetrical airfoil, the center of pressure will

move forward.
move aft.
be unchanged.

47. Question

The critical angle of attack is exceeded when

airflow separates from the wing's trailing edge.
a stall occurs.
indicated airspeed equals Vso x 1.3.

48. Question

The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of

weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.
dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.
weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.

49. Question

The design maneuvering speed is

the maximum speed an airplane can be safely stalled.
1.3 times the normal stalling speed.
maximum takeoff weight divided by V80.

50. Question

The need to slow an aircraft below Va is brought about by the following weather phenomenon.

High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed.
Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.
Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.

51. Question

Stall speed is affected by

weight, load factor, and power.
load factor, angle of attack, and power.
angle of attack, weight, and air density.

52. Question

An airplane will stall at the same

angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.
airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.
angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon.

53. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds.

Power-off stalls occur at higher airspeeds with the gear and flaps down.
In a 60° bank the airplane stalls at a lower airspeed with the gear up.
Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks.

54. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall

10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down.
25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration.
1O knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall, than in a wings-level stall with flaps up

55. Question

A stall will occur

when airspeed is no longer sufficient to generate the required lift.
when the wing reaches the critical angle of attack.
when the critical angle of attack is exceeded.

56. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Use the diagram to determine the critical angle of attack

15 degrees.
16 degrees.
20 degrees.

57. Question

In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to

increase.
decrease.
remain the same.

58. Question

The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by

changes in air density.
variations in flight altitude.
variations in airplane loading.

59. Question

Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its

center of gravity moves aft.
center of gravity moves forward.
elevator trim is adjusted nose down.

60. Question

A left side slip is used to counteract a crosswind drift during the final approach for landing. An over-the top spin would most likely occur if the controls were used in which of the following ways? Holding the stick

in the neutral position and applying full right rudder.
too far to the left and applying full left rudder.
too far back and applying full right rudder.

61. Question

In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the

CG is too far rearward, and rotation is around the longitudinal axis.
CG is too far rearward, and rotation is around the CG.
spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.

62. Question

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.
An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.

63. Question

To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at

the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack.
a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack.
a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

64. Question

A pilot who intends to maintain level flight must coordinate the angle of attack and

thrust.
drag.
lift.

65. Question

As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift

decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases.
increases and the horizontal component of lift decreases.
decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains constant

66. Question

Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all

upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.
rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces.
forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.

67. Question

During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift

is momentarily decreased.
remains the same.
is momentarily increased.

68. Question

Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?

At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

69. Question

What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased?

Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag.
Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift.
Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag.

70. Question

In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become

twice as great.
half as great.
four times greater.

71. Question

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane

decreases because of lower parasite drag.
increases because of increased induced drag.
increases because of increased parasite drag.

72. Question

If airspeed remains constant, but the air density increases, what will be the effect on both lift and drag?

Lift will decrease and drag will decrease.
Drag will decrease and lift will increase.
Lift will increase and drag will increase.

73. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At an airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot can expect to obtain the airplane's maximum

endurance.
glide range.
coefficient of lift.

74. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the airplane will

have its maximum L/D ratio.
have its minimum L/D ratio.
be developing its maximum coefficient of lift.

75. Question

What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum

gain in altitude over a given distance.
range and maximum distance glide.
coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.

76. Question

In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be

the same as at the lower speed.
two times greater than at the lower speed.
four times greater than at the lower speed.

77. Question

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.
vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.
higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.

78. Question

To hold an airplane in level flight at airspeeds from very slow to very fast, a pilot must coordinate thrust and

angle of incidence.
gross weight.
angle of attack.

79. Question

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the

force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber.

80. Question

In theory, if the airspeed of an aircraft is cut in half while in level flight, parasite drag will become

one-third as much.
one-half as much.
one-fourth as much.

81. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If an airplane glides at an angle of attack of 10 degrees, how much altitude will it lose in 1 mile?

240 feet.
480 feet.
960 feet.

82. Question

Refer to the diagram below. How much altitude will this airplane lose in 3 statute miles of gliding at an angle of attack of 8 degrees?

440 feet.
880 feet.
1,320 feet.

83. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The L/D ratio at a 2 degree angle of attack is approximately the same as the L/D ratio for a

9.75 degree angle of attack.
10.5 angle of attack.
16.5 angle of attack.

84. Question

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to the

chord line.
flightpath.
longitudinal axis.

85. Question

Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight?

These forces are equal.
Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.
Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.

86. Question

Both lift and drag would be increased when which of these devices are extended?

Flaps.
Spoilers.
Slats.

87. Question

Refer to the diagram below. As you are flying with a headwind from the coastline inland toward your destination airport, your aircraft has engine failure. You would expect your glide path to be

greater than the ground distance estimate provided.
shorter than the ground distance estimate provided.
very close to the ground distance estimate provided.

88. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At an altitude of 2,000 feet AGL, how far would you expect to glide?

1,400 feet.
3 feet.
18,228 feet.

89. Question

An airplane leaving ground effect will

experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.
experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.
require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

90. Question

To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires

a lower angle of attack.
the same angle of attack.
a greater angle of attack.

91. Question

If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will

increase, and induced drag will decrease.
decrease, and parasite drag will increase.
increase, and induced drag will increase.

92. Question

Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its

rudder.
elevation.
ailerons.

93. Question

Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by

bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

94. Question

If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays

neutral longitudinal static stability.
positive longitudinal static stability.
neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.

95. Question

If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays

positive dynamic stability.
positive static stability.
neutral dynamic stability.

96. Question

If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its

vertical axis.
bilateral axis.
longitudinal axis.

97. Question

If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The angle of attack

and angle of bank must be decreased.
must be increased or angle of bank decreased.
must be decreased or angle of bank increased.

98. Question

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degrees?

1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.

99. Question

While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would

remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.
vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately.
vary depending upon the resultant lift vector.

100. Question

Which is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an airplane flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude?

For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary.
To maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the airspeed is decreased.
The faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate and larger the radius of turn regardless of the angle of bank.

101. Question

To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should

maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.
increase the bank and increase airspeed.
increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

102. Question

While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will

decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.
decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.
increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor

103. Question

Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the

loss of the vertical component of lift.
loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force.
rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn.

104. Question

To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the decrease in the

forces opposing the resultant component of drag.
vertical component of lift.
horizontal component of lift.

105. Question

The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as

load factor and directly affects stall speed.
aspect load and directly affects stall speed.
load factor and has no relation with stall speed.

106. Question

Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time.

divided by the total weight of the aircraft.
multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.
divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

107. Question

For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn

is constant and the stall speed increases.
varies with the rate of turn.
is constant and the stall speed decreases.

108. Question

Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the

rate of turn.
angle of bank.
true airspeed.

109. Question

The load factor for an airplane in a 60 degree banked turn is

1.7 Gs.
2 Gs.
3 Gs.

110. Question

A load factor of 1.2 means the total load on an aircraft's structure is 1.2 times its

gross weight.
load limit.
gust factor.

111. Question

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be

3,000 pounds.
4,000 pounds.
12,000 pounds.

112. Question

If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will

increase as well as the stall speed.
decrease and the stall speed will increase.
remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

113. Question

If the airspeed is decreased from 98 knots to 85 knots during a coordinated level 45° banked turn, the load factor will

remain the same, but the radius of turn will decrease.
decrease, and the rate of turn will decrease.
remain the same, but the radius of turn will decrease.

114. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What increase in load factor would take lace if the angle of bank were increased from 60 degrees to 80 degrees.

3 G's.
3.5 G's.
4 G's.

115. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2.5 Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?

62 knots.
84 knots.
96 knots.

116. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?

66 knots,.
74 knots.
84 knots.

117. Question

Which factor below is the best indication of positive or negative Gs in an aircraft?

Change in the amount of pressure by the pilot needed on the controls.
Change in how heavy or light you feel in your seat.
Change in control-surface effectiveness.

118. Question

Baggage weighing 90 pounds is placed in a no ma! category airplane's baggage compartment, which 1s placarded at 100 pounds. If this airplane is subjected to a positive load factor of 3.5 Gs, the total load of the baggage would be

315 pounds and would be excessive.
315 pounds and would not be excessive.
350 pounds and would not be excessive.

119. Question

Which of the following would best indicate to the pilot that the load factor placed on the airframe has been increased?

An increase in the sensation of being pushed into the seat.
An increase in airspeed.
More effort is required to operate the controls.

120. Question

The ratio of an airplane's true airspeed to the speed of sound in the same atmospheric conditions is

equivalent airspeed.
transonic airflow.
mach number.

121. Question

Transonic airflow typically occurs in airplane speed regimes between Mach

high speed stalls.
P factor.
control difficulties.

122. Question

Acceleration past critical Mach speed may cause compressibility issues such as

asymmetric loading.
propeller slippage.
drag increases.

123. Question

If the airspeed is increased from 89 knots to 98 knots during a coordinated level 45 degree banked turn, the load factor will

remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase.
decrease, and the rate of turn will decrease.
increase, but the rate of turn will decrease.

124. Question

Accelerating past critical Mach may result in the onset of compressibility effects such as

high speed stalls.
P factor.
control difficulties.

125. Question

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

a properly functioning cowl flap augmenter.
the circulation of lubricating oil.
the proper Freon/compressor output ratio.

126. Question

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

a defective bearing.
the oil level being too low.
operating with an excessively rich mixture.

127. Question

Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of

exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit.
a power loss due to back pressure in the exhaust system.
a cold-running engine due to the heat withdrawn by the heater.

128. Question

Propeller efficiency is the

ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.
actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.

129. Question

A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of

altitude and RPM.
airspeed and RPM.
airspeed and altitude.

130. Question

The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it

permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight.
permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.

131. Question

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?

As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged.
A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs.
The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM.

132. Question

When referring to a constant speed propeller, the pitch setting is

varied in flight by a governor maintaining constant RPM despite varying air loads.
set to a specific blade angle by the pilot.
unchanged; the manifold pressure changes, not the propeller pitch.

133. Question

To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that will produce a

large angle of attack and low RPM.
small angle of attack and high RPM.
large angle of attack and high RPM.

134. Question

In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being

decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure.

135. Question

For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a

small angle of attack and high RPM.
large angle of attack and low RPM.
large angle of attack and high RPM.

136. Question

To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and

increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.
decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.
decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.

137. Question

A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the

right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.
left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

138. Question

Which of the following terms describes an airport?

An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
An area of land that is used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft, but does not include buildings since not all airports have buildings.
All runway, taxiway, and ramp areas created for use by aircraft.

139. Question

Regulations which refer to "commercial operators" relate to that person who

is the owner of a small scheduled airline.
for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an air carrier.
for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.

140. Question

Regulations which refer to the "operational control" of a flight are in relation to

the specific duties of any required crewmember.
acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.
exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

141. Question

Regulations which refer to "operate" relate to that person who

acts as pilot in command of the aircraft.
is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.
causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.

142. Question

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?

Vs.
Vs1.
Vso.

143. Question

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?

Vs.
Vs1.
Vso.

144. Question

14 CFR Part 1 defines VF as

design flap speed.
flap operating speed.
maximum flap extended speed.

145. Question

14 CFR Part 1 defines VNo as

maximum structural cruising speed.
normal operating speed.
maximum operating speed.

146. Question

14 CFR Part 1 defines VLE as

maximum landing gear extended speed.
maximum landing gear operating speed.
maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.

147. Question

14 CFR Part 1 defines VNE as

maximum nose wheel extend speed.
never-exceed speed.
maximum landing gear extended speed.

148. Question

14 CFR Part 1 defines Vy as

speed for best rate of descent.
speed for best angle of climb.
speed for best rate of climb.

149. Question

14 CFR Part 1 defines VNo as

maximum structural cruising speed.
maximum operating limit speed.
never-exceed speed.

150. Question

If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?

Limited acrobatics, excluding spins.
Any maneuver except acrobatics or spins.
Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).

151. Question

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

152. Question

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?

The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

153. Question

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

154. Question

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.
The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

155. Question

What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?

156 knots.
200 knots.
230 knots.

156. Question

What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder

with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.
is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.

157. Question

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate.

158. Question

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is

180 knots.
200 knots.
230 knots.

159. Question

The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally

20 NM.
30 NM.
40 NM.

160. Question

At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are

not authorized.
authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM.

161. Question

If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the

operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency.
aircraft may be operated at that speed.
operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.

162. Question

12. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?

Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.
Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.

163. Question

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?

Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Prior to landing, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with an ATC facility.

164. Question

When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?

Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.

165. Question

To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?

The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums.
The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area.
The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

166. Question

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to

10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

167. Question

Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from

700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.
1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.
1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

168. Question

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to

8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

169. Question

Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when

piloting for hire only.
acting as pilot in command.
carrying passengers only.

170. Question

What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?

Class D, which then becomes Class C.
Class D, which then becomes Class E.
Class B.

171. Question

When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should

make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

172. Question

Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?

Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.

173. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when

passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.
is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.
is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

174. Question

A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a

written report to the FM Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
written report to the FM Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
the notification of the conviction to an FM Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

175. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The red symbol at the top would most likely be found

upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.
at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
near the approach end of ILS runways.

176. Question

Refer to the diagram below. While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

177. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign indicates

you are about to enter, or you are clear of, the ILS critical area.
an area you are prohibited from entering.
an area in which aircraft over 30 feet tall may conflict with aircraft on the ILS approach.

178. Question

Refer to the diagram below. From the cockpit, the middle marking confirms the aircraft to be

on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
on a runway, about to clear.
near an instrument approach clearance zone.

179. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?

Bottom yellow.
Top red.
Middle yellow.

180. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?

Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

181. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?

Top end.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.

182. Question

A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the

nearest FM Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action.
FM Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
FM Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.

183. Question

The runway holding position sign is located on

runways that intersect other runways.
taxiways protected from an aircraft approaching a runway.
runways that intersect other taxiways.

184. Question

A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for

a written report to be filed with the FM Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
notification of this conviction to the FM Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.

185. Question

Refer to the diagram below. As you taxi you see sign 2 on the right side of the aircraft and sign 1 directly in front of you on the opposite side of the intersection. Does the taxiway continue on the opposite side of the intersection?

Yes, taxiway A is on the opposite side of the intersection.
Yes, taxiway Tis on the opposite side of the intersection.
No, the taxiway does not continue.

186. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Sign 1 is an indication

of an area where aircraft are prohibited.
that the taxiway does not continue.
of the general taxiing direction to a taxiway.

187. Question

Which of the following best describes a destination sign?

Indicates a runway on which the aircraft is presently located.
Indicates the direction to the takeoff runway.
Indicates the entrance to a taxiway from a runway.

188. Question

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates

direction to the take-off runway.
designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

189. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The "taxiwayending" marker

indicates taxiway does not continue.
identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

190. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Use the sign and taxiway diagram. You are approaching the intersection on taxiway 5 and see the sign at the left of the intersection. Taxiway number 2 is identified as

A.
F.
T.

191. Question

Refer to the diagram below. This sign is a visual clue that

confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "A."
warns the pilot of approaching taxiway "A."
indicates "A" holding area is ahead.

192. Question

A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person's faculties, is grounds for a

written report to be filed with the FM Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
written notification to the FM Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
denial of an application for an FM certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.

193. Question

"Runway Holding Position Markings" on taxiways

identify where aircraft are prohibited to taxi when not cleared to proceed by ground control.
identify where aircraft are supposed to stop when not cleared to proceed onto the runway.
allow an aircraft permission onto the runway.

194. Question

Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?

No, it is issued without an expiration date.
Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued.
No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months.

195. Question

A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?

Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.
Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.

196. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You are directed to taxi to runway 10. You see this sign at a taxiway intersection while taxiing. Which way should you proceed?

Left.
Right.
Straight ahead.

197. Question

The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates

A. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.
the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

198. Question

To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propeller, a person is required to

hold a multiengine airplane class rating.
make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6 months.
receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.

199. Question

What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

Defines direction and designation of runway when exiting a taxiway.
Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway.
Defines a mandatory exit point from the runway during Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).

200. Question

To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to

receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such an airplane.
obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot stating that the person is proficient to operate such an airplane.
receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.

201. Question

To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must

log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor.
pass a competency check and receive an endorsement from an authorized instructor.
receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor.

202. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?

A.
C.
E.

203. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At what point on the airport diagram could a pilot expect to see this sign?

3 and 5.
10 and 11.
3, 5, 10 and 11.

204. Question

When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?

On flights when carrying another person.
All solo flights.
On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA inspector.

205. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If you were on a taxiway approaching or leading to Runway 22, which sign would you see?

1
2
Neither 1 or 2.

206. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Sign 1 confirms your position on

runway 22.
routing to runway 22.
taxiway 22.

207. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You are viewing this sign from the cockpit as you hold short of the runway. The air traffic controller clears you to back taxi on the runway for a full length departure on Runway 8. Which way would you turn to begin the back taxi?

Right.
Left.
Not enough information is provided.

208. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You are viewing this sign from the cockpit as you hold short of the runway. The air traffic controller clears you to back taxi on the runway for a full length departure on Runway 26. Which way would you turn to begin the back taxi?

Right.
Left.
Not enough information is provided.

209. Question

Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any

aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.
aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.
multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000 pounds.

210. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You are holding short for an intersection departure on Runway 8 with the sign in front of you. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway to depart Runway 8?

Turn right.
Turn left.
Insufficient information is provided.

211. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You are holding short for an intersection departure on Runway 26 with the sign in front of you. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway for departure?

Turn right.
Turn left.
Insufficient information is provided.

212. Question

To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must

log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor.
receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.
pass a competency check and receive an endorsement from an authorized instructor.

213. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If cleared for an intersection takeoff on runway 8, you see this sign at the intersection hold short position. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway?

Left.
Right.
Need more information.

214. Question

Refer to the diagram below. You see this sign when holding short of the runway. You receive clearance to back taxi on the runway for a full-length runway 8 departure. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway?

Left.
Right.
Need more information.

215. Question

What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?

All flight time while acting as second in command in aircraft configured for more than one pilot.
Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls.
All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.

216. Question

What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?

All flight time flown for compensation or hire.
Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review.

217. Question

To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crew member, and operated under Part 91, a person must

receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the type of airplane privileges are requested.
hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category rating.
within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.

218. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding

24 calendar months.
12 calendar months.
6 calendar months.

219. Question

If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is

1900 CST.
1800 CST.
1959 CST.

220. Question

Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in

any category aircraft.
the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).

221. Question

No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, at least

six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category.
six instrument flights and six approaches.
three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours of instruments.

222. Question

To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crew member, and operated under Part 91, a person must

complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.
receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor.
complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.

223. Question

Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of

30 days.
60 days.
90 days.

224. Question

To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a pilot must have accomplished, within the preceding 12 months, at least

three actual glider tows under the supervision of a qualified tow pilot.
three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.
ten flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider.

225. Question

To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have

at least a private pilot certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft, and made and logged at least three flights as pilot or observer in a glider being towed by an airplane.
a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders.
a logbook record of having made at least three flights as sole manipulator of the controls of a glider being towed by an airplane.

226. Question

What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot-airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carriage of passengers

or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.
for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.
for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night is prohibited.

227. Question

A person with a Commercial Pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation or hire, if that person

is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.
holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61.

228. Question

What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?

Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office.
Advise ATC of the pilot in command's intentions.
Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

229. Question

What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane?

Certificate holder.
Pilot in command.
Airplane owner/operator.

230. Question

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A certificated aircraft mechanic.
The pilot in command.
The owner or operator.

231. Question

An aircraft is on a stop 460 NM from base. It develops a mechanical problem. You get a technician to fix the problem. Who is responsible for the airworthiness of the aircraft?

Owner or operator.
Pilot in command.
Technician.

232. Question

When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft?

A manufacturer's Operations Manual.
A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.
An Owner's Manual.

233. Question

A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight

if it creates a hazard to persons and property.
unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property.
unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid damage to property.

234. Question

Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown

along Federal airways.
within the U.S.
in air carrier operations.

235. Question

Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft being operated

under IFR.
in passenger carrying operations.
along Federal airways.

236. Question

No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S.-registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its execution?

24.
48.
72.

237. Question

When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?

IFR flights only.
Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
Any flight conducted for hire or compensation.

238. Question

The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to

any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
IFR flights only.

239. Question

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.

240. Question

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed.

241. Question

A pilot in command is required to be aware of all of the information pertinent to the flight. This should include what information about the destination airport?

Customs availability at an airport of entry.
Land and hold short operations (LAHSO).
Available airport services.

242. Question

Required flight crewmembers' seatbelts must be fastened

only during takeoff and landing.
while the crewmembers are at their stations.
only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.

243. Question

Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened

during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft.
while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

244. Question

Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each

flight crewmember only.
person on board.
flight and cabin crewmembers.

245. Question

With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for

safe operating practice, but not required by regulations.
each person over 2 years of age on board.
commercial passenger operations only.

246. Question

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the

other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot.
pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance.
other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.

247. Question

Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are

not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

248. Question

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

249. Question

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.
not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

250. Question

Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass.
Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

251. Question

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?

Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass.
Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

252. Question

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

at the higher altitude.
at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.

253. Question

During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft

#2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.
#2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1.
#1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

254. Question

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?

The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.
The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left.
Each pilot should alter course to the right.

255. Question

While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?

The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.
The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes.
The airplane, because airplanes have the right of-way over helicopters.

256. Question

What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?

Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
29.92" Hg.
Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.

257. Question

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot

requests an amended clearance.
is operating VFR on top.
receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.

258. Question

When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above ___ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.

31.00.
32.00.
30.50.

259. Question

Refer to the diagram below. This taxiway sign would be expected

at the intersection of runway 08/26 departure end and the taxiway.
near the intersection of runways 08 and 26.
at a taxiway intersecting runway 08/26.

260. Question

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?

1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.

261. Question

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

262. Question

What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is

headed away from you.
crossing to your left.
approaching you head-on.

263. Question

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of

14,500 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.

264. Question

When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flight, it is important to

make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic.
exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.
pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial.

265. Question

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying

at 3,000 feet or more AGL; based on true course.
more than 3,000 feet AGL; based on magnetic course.
at 3,000 feet or more above MSL; based on magnetic heading.

266. Question

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by

being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.
extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.

267. Question

If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for

30 minutes at slow cruising speed.
45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
1 hour at normal cruising speed.

268. Question

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?

Past the point where the jet touched down.
At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.

269. Question

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?

Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

270. Question

For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums.

Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision.

271. Question

For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a

ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM,

272. Question

Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.

Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.
The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.
The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast.

273. Question

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

274. Question

When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the preceding

30 days or 30 hours of flight time.
10 days or 10 hours of flight time.
30 days.

275. Question

What is the maximum bearing error(+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal?

4 degrees.
6 degrees.
8 degrees.

276. Question

Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?

Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.

277. Question

Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a pilot making VOR operational check for IFR operations?

VOR name or identification, place of operational check, amount of bearing error, and date of check.
Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature.
VOR name or identification, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature.

278. Question

With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?

Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.
Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.

279. Question

On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the

aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.
approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.
flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.

280. Question

Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?

Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow
When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.

281. Question

Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the

flight visibility is at, or exceeds, the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceed, the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distinctly visible to the pilot.

282. Question

A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when

receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.
maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.
receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.

283. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

2,000 feet over all terrain.
3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

284. Question

The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible when

passing FL 180.
passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude.
changing control facilities.

285. Question

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance?

ATC tower controller.
ATC approach controller.
Pilot-in-command.

286. Question

The commercial pilot operating as the pilot in command of an aircraft may accept or decline a land and hold short clearance (LAHSO)

when operating for hire.
any time.
at night.

287. Question

Once a pilot-in-command accepts a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance, the clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless

an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs.
the wind changes or Available Landing Distance decreases.
Available Landing Distance decreases or density altitude increases.

288. Question

When should pilots decline a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance?

When it will compromise safety.
If runway surface is contaminated .
Only when the tower controller concurs.

289. Question

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and hold short" clearance?

3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.
3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet.
3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.

290. Question

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and hold short" clearance?

3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.
3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet.
3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.

291. Question

What information should a pilot have available when encountering LAHSO?

FAA Advisory Circular on airport markings, signs, and LAHSO.
Published available landing distance data for the expected destination.
Aeronautical Information Manual content relating to LAHSO.

292. Question

A 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance

precludes a "Go Around" by ATC.
does not preclude a rejected landing.
requires a runway exit at the first taxiway.

293. Question

To conduct LAHSO a pilot should have readily available

runway slope information.
published LAHSO procedure.
current ATC guide for airport runway markings, lights, signs, LAHSO, and runway safety.

294. Question

Prior to accepting a "land and hold short" clearance (LAHSO) a pilot must confirm the aircraft can stop

in the Available Landing Distance.
prior to the intersecting taxiway.
prior to the intersecting runway.

295. Question

The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when

climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.
experiencing any malfunctions of navigational approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.
requested to contact a new controlling facility.

296. Question

Which list accurately reflects some of the documents required to be current and carried in a U. S.-registered civil airplane flying in the United States under day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
Verify approved position lights are not burned out.

297. Question

A commercial pilot is preparing for a VFR flight that will involve carrying passengers 150 NM at night. Prior to the flight what action must the PIC perform?

Confirm the Airworthiness Certificate is on board and visible to passengers.
File a flight plan.
Confirm the proof of insurance is on board.

298. Question

Prior to departing on a VFR cross-country flight over mountainous terrain, what action must the pilot in command perform?

Confirm the Airworthiness certificate is visible to passengers and crew.
Perform a VOR check.
Take a mountain flying awareness course (MFAC).

299. Question

You are taking a 123 nautical mile VFR flight from one airport to another. Which of the following actions must the pilot in command take?

Ensure each passenger has a legible photo identification.
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.

300. Question

You are taking a 196 nautical mile VFR cross country flight in mountainous terrain. Which of the following actions must the pilot in command take?

Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.
Ensure all items in the baggage area are strapped down.

301. Question

Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over water,

in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
more than 50 statute miles from shore.

302. Question

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

Flashlight with red lens, if the flight is for hire.
An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.
Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.

303. Question

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

Anti collision light system.
Gyroscopic direction indicator.
Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.

304. Question

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is

30 minutes.
45 minutes.
60 minutes.

305. Question

If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight

at sunset.
30 minutes after sunset.
1 hour after sunset.

306. Question

If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anti collision light system, no person may operate that aircraft

after dark.
1 hour after sunset.
after sunset to sunrise.

307. Question

What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?

Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew.
Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon.
The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.

308. Question

In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of

10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL.
12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.

309. Question

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for

Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface).
both of the other answers.

310. Question

In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above

10,000 feet MSL.
12,500 feet MSL.
14,500 feet MSL.

311. Question

Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?

Approval from ATC to operate in Class E airspace.
A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.
A safety link at each end of the towline which has a breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the aircraft's gross weight.

312. Question

Which of the following preflight actions is the pilot in command required to take in order to comply with the United States Code of Federal Regulations regarding day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
Verify approved position lights are not burned out.

313. Question

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a "restricted" category airplane?

A pilot of a "restricted" category airplane is required to hold a commercial pilot certificate.
A "restricted" category airplane is limited to an operating radius of 25 miles from its home base.
No person may operate a "restricted" category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

314. Question

The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is

not authorized in limited category aircraft.
not authorized in utility category airplane.
authorized in restricted category aircraft.

315. Question

No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate

under instrument flight rules (IFR).
when carrying property for hire.
when carrying persons or property for hire.

316. Question

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a "primary" category airplane?

A "primary" category airplane is limited to a specified operating radius from its home base.
No person may operate a "primary" category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.
A pilot of a "primary" category airplane must hold a commercial pilot certificate when carrying passengers for compensation or hire.

317. Question

Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the

pilot in command and the FM certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft.
pilot in command of that aircraft.
owner or operator of that aircraft.

318. Question

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?

The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.
Pilot in command or operator.
Owner or operator of the aircraft.

319. Question

After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made

on the airworthiness certificate.
in the aircraft maintenance records.
in the FM-approved flight manual.

320. Question

A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives

required maintenance and inspections.
an annual inspection.
an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.

321. Question

If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being operated

under VFR or IFR rules.
with passengers aboard.
for compensation or hire.

322. Question

Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?

A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection.
An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.
An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved.

323. Question

An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?

The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours.
The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs.
The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.

324. Question

If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?

Its use is not permitted.
It may be used when in Class G airspace.
It may be used for VFR flight only.

325. Question

An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding

30 days.
12 calendar months.
24 calendar months.

326. Question

Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?

AD's are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately.
Noncompliance with AD's renders an aircraft unairworthy.
Compliance with AD's is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.

327. Question

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the

applicable airworthiness certificate.
life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.
life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

328. Question

Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?

A record of preventive maintenance is not required.
A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.
Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight manual.

329. Question

A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previou

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