commercial all questions
Quiz Summary
0 of 649 questions completed
Questions:
Information
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You must first complete the following:
Results
Results
0 of 649 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 point(s), (0)
Earned Point(s): 0 of 0, (0)
0 Essay(s) Pending (Possible Point(s): 0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- 61
- 62
- 63
- 64
- 65
- 66
- 67
- 68
- 69
- 70
- 71
- 72
- 73
- 74
- 75
- 76
- 77
- 78
- 79
- 80
- 81
- 82
- 83
- 84
- 85
- 86
- 87
- 88
- 89
- 90
- 91
- 92
- 93
- 94
- 95
- 96
- 97
- 98
- 99
- 100
- 101
- 102
- 103
- 104
- 105
- 106
- 107
- 108
- 109
- 110
- 111
- 112
- 113
- 114
- 115
- 116
- 117
- 118
- 119
- 120
- 121
- 122
- 123
- 124
- 125
- 126
- 127
- 128
- 129
- 130
- 131
- 132
- 133
- 134
- 135
- 136
- 137
- 138
- 139
- 140
- 141
- 142
- 143
- 144
- 145
- 146
- 147
- 148
- 149
- 150
- 151
- 152
- 153
- 154
- 155
- 156
- 157
- 158
- 159
- 160
- 161
- 162
- 163
- 164
- 165
- 166
- 167
- 168
- 169
- 170
- 171
- 172
- 173
- 174
- 175
- 176
- 177
- 178
- 179
- 180
- 181
- 182
- 183
- 184
- 185
- 186
- 187
- 188
- 189
- 190
- 191
- 192
- 193
- 194
- 195
- 196
- 197
- 198
- 199
- 200
- 201
- 202
- 203
- 204
- 205
- 206
- 207
- 208
- 209
- 210
- 211
- 212
- 213
- 214
- 215
- 216
- 217
- 218
- 219
- 220
- 221
- 222
- 223
- 224
- 225
- 226
- 227
- 228
- 229
- 230
- 231
- 232
- 233
- 234
- 235
- 236
- 237
- 238
- 239
- 240
- 241
- 242
- 243
- 244
- 245
- 246
- 247
- 248
- 249
- 250
- 251
- 252
- 253
- 254
- 255
- 256
- 257
- 258
- 259
- 260
- 261
- 262
- 263
- 264
- 265
- 266
- 267
- 268
- 269
- 270
- 271
- 272
- 273
- 274
- 275
- 276
- 277
- 278
- 279
- 280
- 281
- 282
- 283
- 284
- 285
- 286
- 287
- 288
- 289
- 290
- 291
- 292
- 293
- 294
- 295
- 296
- 297
- 298
- 299
- 300
- 301
- 302
- 303
- 304
- 305
- 306
- 307
- 308
- 309
- 310
- 311
- 312
- 313
- 314
- 315
- 316
- 317
- 318
- 319
- 320
- 321
- 322
- 323
- 324
- 325
- 326
- 327
- 328
- 329
- 330
- 331
- 332
- 333
- 334
- 335
- 336
- 337
- 338
- 339
- 340
- 341
- 342
- 343
- 344
- 345
- 346
- 347
- 348
- 349
- 350
- 351
- 352
- 353
- 354
- 355
- 356
- 357
- 358
- 359
- 360
- 361
- 362
- 363
- 364
- 365
- 366
- 367
- 368
- 369
- 370
- 371
- 372
- 373
- 374
- 375
- 376
- 377
- 378
- 379
- 380
- 381
- 382
- 383
- 384
- 385
- 386
- 387
- 388
- 389
- 390
- 391
- 392
- 393
- 394
- 395
- 396
- 397
- 398
- 399
- 400
- 401
- 402
- 403
- 404
- 405
- 406
- 407
- 408
- 409
- 410
- 411
- 412
- 413
- 414
- 415
- 416
- 417
- 418
- 419
- 420
- 421
- 422
- 423
- 424
- 425
- 426
- 427
- 428
- 429
- 430
- 431
- 432
- 433
- 434
- 435
- 436
- 437
- 438
- 439
- 440
- 441
- 442
- 443
- 444
- 445
- 446
- 447
- 448
- 449
- 450
- 451
- 452
- 453
- 454
- 455
- 456
- 457
- 458
- 459
- 460
- 461
- 462
- 463
- 464
- 465
- 466
- 467
- 468
- 469
- 470
- 471
- 472
- 473
- 474
- 475
- 476
- 477
- 478
- 479
- 480
- 481
- 482
- 483
- 484
- 485
- 486
- 487
- 488
- 489
- 490
- 491
- 492
- 493
- 494
- 495
- 496
- 497
- 498
- 499
- 500
- 501
- 502
- 503
- 504
- 505
- 506
- 507
- 508
- 509
- 510
- 511
- 512
- 513
- 514
- 515
- 516
- 517
- 518
- 519
- 520
- 521
- 522
- 523
- 524
- 525
- 526
- 527
- 528
- 529
- 530
- 531
- 532
- 533
- 534
- 535
- 536
- 537
- 538
- 539
- 540
- 541
- 542
- 543
- 544
- 545
- 546
- 547
- 548
- 549
- 550
- 551
- 552
- 553
- 554
- 555
- 556
- 557
- 558
- 559
- 560
- 561
- 562
- 563
- 564
- 565
- 566
- 567
- 568
- 569
- 570
- 571
- 572
- 573
- 574
- 575
- 576
- 577
- 578
- 579
- 580
- 581
- 582
- 583
- 584
- 585
- 586
- 587
- 588
- 589
- 590
- 591
- 592
- 593
- 594
- 595
- 596
- 597
- 598
- 599
- 600
- 601
- 602
- 603
- 604
- 605
- 606
- 607
- 608
- 609
- 610
- 611
- 612
- 613
- 614
- 615
- 616
- 617
- 618
- 619
- 620
- 621
- 622
- 623
- 624
- 625
- 626
- 627
- 628
- 629
- 630
- 631
- 632
- 633
- 634
- 635
- 636
- 637
- 638
- 639
- 640
- 641
- 642
- 643
- 644
- 645
- 646
- 647
- 648
- 649
- Current
- Review
- Answered
- Incorrect
-
Question 1 of 649
1. Question
Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 2 of 649
2. Question
Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 3 of 649
3. Question
Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 4 of 649
4. Question
Refer to the diagram below. The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 5 of 649
5. Question
Refer to the diagram below. The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 6 of 649
6. Question
Refer to the diagram below. The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 7 of 649
7. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Point C references
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 8 of 649
8. Question
Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 9 of 649
9. Question
Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 10 of 649
10. Question
True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 11 of 649
11. Question
What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 12 of 649
12. Question
What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 13 of 649
13. Question
What is a benefit of flying with a glass cockpit?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 14 of 649
14. Question
What steps must be taken when flying with glass cockpits to ensure safe flight?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 15 of 649
15. Question
An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 16 of 649
16. Question
Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 17 of 649
17. Question
Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 18 of 649
18. Question
What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 19 of 649
19. Question
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 20 of 649
20. Question
At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 21 of 649
21. Question
The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 22 of 649
22. Question
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 23 of 649
23. Question
The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 24 of 649
24. Question
The mixture control can be adjusted, which
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 25 of 649
25. Question
What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 26 of 649
26. Question
Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 27 of 649
27. Question
Applying carburetor heat will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 28 of 649
28. Question
Leaving the carburetor heat on during takeoff
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 29 of 649
29. Question
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 30 of 649
30. Question
Detonation can be caused by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 31 of 649
31. Question
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 32 of 649
32. Question
Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 33 of 649
33. Question
Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues to run with no interruption; this
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 34 of 649
34. Question
A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 35 of 649
35. Question
The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 36 of 649
36. Question
A detuning of engine crankshaft counterweights is a source of overstress that may be caused by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 37 of 649
37. Question
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 38 of 649
38. Question
One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 39 of 649
39. Question
Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 40 of 649
40. Question
Some aircraft are fitted with wing spoilers to decrease
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 41 of 649
41. Question
An aircraft airfoil is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 42 of 649
42. Question
A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 43 of 649
43. Question
The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 44 of 649
44. Question
Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 45 of 649
45. Question
By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 46 of 649
46. Question
When a pilot increases the angle of attack on a symmetrical airfoil, the center of pressure will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 47 of 649
47. Question
The critical angle of attack is exceeded when
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 48 of 649
48. Question
The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 49 of 649
49. Question
The design maneuvering speed is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 50 of 649
50. Question
The need to slow an aircraft below Va is brought about by the following weather phenomenon.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 51 of 649
51. Question
Stall speed is affected by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 52 of 649
52. Question
An airplane will stall at the same
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 53 of 649
53. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 54 of 649
54. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 55 of 649
55. Question
A stall will occur
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 56 of 649
56. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Use the diagram to determine the critical angle of attack
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 57 of 649
57. Question
In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 58 of 649
58. Question
The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 59 of 649
59. Question
Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 60 of 649
60. Question
A left side slip is used to counteract a crosswind drift during the final approach for landing. An over-the top spin would most likely occur if the controls were used in which of the following ways? Holding the stick
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 61 of 649
61. Question
In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 62 of 649
62. Question
Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 63 of 649
63. Question
To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 64 of 649
64. Question
A pilot who intends to maintain level flight must coordinate the angle of attack and
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 65 of 649
65. Question
As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 66 of 649
66. Question
Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 67 of 649
67. Question
During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 68 of 649
68. Question
Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 69 of 649
69. Question
What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 70 of 649
70. Question
In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 71 of 649
71. Question
As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 72 of 649
72. Question
If airspeed remains constant, but the air density increases, what will be the effect on both lift and drag?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 73 of 649
73. Question
Refer to the diagram below. At an airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot can expect to obtain the airplane's maximum
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 74 of 649
74. Question
Refer to the diagram below. At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the airplane will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 75 of 649
75. Question
What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 76 of 649
76. Question
In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 77 of 649
77. Question
An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 78 of 649
78. Question
To hold an airplane in level flight at airspeeds from very slow to very fast, a pilot must coordinate thrust and
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 79 of 649
79. Question
Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 80 of 649
80. Question
In theory, if the airspeed of an aircraft is cut in half while in level flight, parasite drag will become
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 81 of 649
81. Question
Refer to the diagram below. If an airplane glides at an angle of attack of 10 degrees, how much altitude will it lose in 1 mile?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 82 of 649
82. Question
Refer to the diagram below. How much altitude will this airplane lose in 3 statute miles of gliding at an angle of attack of 8 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 83 of 649
83. Question
Refer to the diagram below. The L/D ratio at a 2 degree angle of attack is approximately the same as the L/D ratio for a
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 84 of 649
84. Question
On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 85 of 649
85. Question
Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 86 of 649
86. Question
Both lift and drag would be increased when which of these devices are extended?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 87 of 649
87. Question
Refer to the diagram below. As you are flying with a headwind from the coastline inland toward your destination airport, your aircraft has engine failure. You would expect your glide path to be
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 88 of 649
88. Question
Refer to the diagram below. At an altitude of 2,000 feet AGL, how far would you expect to glide?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 89 of 649
89. Question
An airplane leaving ground effect will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 90 of 649
90. Question
To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 91 of 649
91. Question
If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 92 of 649
92. Question
Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 93 of 649
93. Question
Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 94 of 649
94. Question
If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 95 of 649
95. Question
If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 96 of 649
96. Question
If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 97 of 649
97. Question
If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The angle of attack
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 98 of 649
98. Question
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degrees?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 99 of 649
99. Question
While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 100 of 649
100. Question
Which is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an airplane flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 101 of 649
101. Question
To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 102 of 649
102. Question
While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 103 of 649
103. Question
Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 104 of 649
104. Question
To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the decrease in the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 105 of 649
105. Question
The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 106 of 649
106. Question
Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 107 of 649
107. Question
For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 108 of 649
108. Question
Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 109 of 649
109. Question
The load factor for an airplane in a 60 degree banked turn is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 110 of 649
110. Question
A load factor of 1.2 means the total load on an aircraft's structure is 1.2 times its
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 111 of 649
111. Question
If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 112 of 649
112. Question
If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 113 of 649
113. Question
If the airspeed is decreased from 98 knots to 85 knots during a coordinated level 45° banked turn, the load factor will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 114 of 649
114. Question
Refer to the diagram below. What increase in load factor would take lace if the angle of bank were increased from 60 degrees to 80 degrees.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 115 of 649
115. Question
Refer to the diagram below. What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2.5 Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 116 of 649
116. Question
Refer to the diagram below. What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 117 of 649
117. Question
Which factor below is the best indication of positive or negative Gs in an aircraft?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 118 of 649
118. Question
Baggage weighing 90 pounds is placed in a no ma! category airplane's baggage compartment, which 1s placarded at 100 pounds. If this airplane is subjected to a positive load factor of 3.5 Gs, the total load of the baggage would be
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 119 of 649
119. Question
Which of the following would best indicate to the pilot that the load factor placed on the airframe has been increased?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 120 of 649
120. Question
The ratio of an airplane's true airspeed to the speed of sound in the same atmospheric conditions is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 121 of 649
121. Question
Transonic airflow typically occurs in airplane speed regimes between Mach
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 122 of 649
122. Question
Acceleration past critical Mach speed may cause compressibility issues such as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 123 of 649
123. Question
If the airspeed is increased from 89 knots to 98 knots during a coordinated level 45 degree banked turn, the load factor will
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 124 of 649
124. Question
Accelerating past critical Mach may result in the onset of compressibility effects such as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 125 of 649
125. Question
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 126 of 649
126. Question
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 127 of 649
127. Question
Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 128 of 649
128. Question
Propeller efficiency is the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 129 of 649
129. Question
A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 130 of 649
130. Question
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 131 of 649
131. Question
Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 132 of 649
132. Question
When referring to a constant speed propeller, the pitch setting is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 133 of 649
133. Question
To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that will produce a
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 134 of 649
134. Question
In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 135 of 649
135. Question
For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 136 of 649
136. Question
To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 137 of 649
137. Question
A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 138 of 649
138. Question
Which of the following terms describes an airport?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 139 of 649
139. Question
Regulations which refer to "commercial operators" relate to that person who
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 140 of 649
140. Question
Regulations which refer to the "operational control" of a flight are in relation to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 141 of 649
141. Question
Regulations which refer to "operate" relate to that person who
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 142 of 649
142. Question
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 143 of 649
143. Question
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 144 of 649
144. Question
14 CFR Part 1 defines VF as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 145 of 649
145. Question
14 CFR Part 1 defines VNo as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 146 of 649
146. Question
14 CFR Part 1 defines VLE as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 147 of 649
147. Question
14 CFR Part 1 defines VNE as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 148 of 649
148. Question
14 CFR Part 1 defines Vy as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 149 of 649
149. Question
14 CFR Part 1 defines VNo as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 150 of 649
150. Question
If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 151 of 649
151. Question
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 152 of 649
152. Question
Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 153 of 649
153. Question
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 154 of 649
154. Question
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 155 of 649
155. Question
What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 156 of 649
156. Question
What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 157 of 649
157. Question
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 158 of 649
158. Question
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 159 of 649
159. Question
The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 160 of 649
160. Question
At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 161 of 649
161. Question
If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 162 of 649
162. Question
12. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 163 of 649
163. Question
Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 164 of 649
164. Question
When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 165 of 649
165. Question
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 166 of 649
166. Question
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 167 of 649
167. Question
Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 168 of 649
168. Question
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 169 of 649
169. Question
Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 170 of 649
170. Question
What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 171 of 649
171. Question
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 172 of 649
172. Question
Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 173 of 649
173. Question
Refer to the diagram below. The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 174 of 649
174. Question
A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 175 of 649
175. Question
Refer to the diagram below. The red symbol at the top would most likely be found
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 176 of 649
176. Question
Refer to the diagram below. While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 177 of 649
177. Question
Refer to the diagram below. The ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign indicates
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 178 of 649
178. Question
Refer to the diagram below. From the cockpit, the middle marking confirms the aircraft to be
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 179 of 649
179. Question
Refer to the diagram below. When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 180 of 649
180. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 181 of 649
181. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 182 of 649
182. Question
A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 183 of 649
183. Question
The runway holding position sign is located on
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 184 of 649
184. Question
A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 185 of 649
185. Question
Refer to the diagram below. As you taxi you see sign 2 on the right side of the aircraft and sign 1 directly in front of you on the opposite side of the intersection. Does the taxiway continue on the opposite side of the intersection?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 186 of 649
186. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Sign 1 is an indication
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 187 of 649
187. Question
Which of the following best describes a destination sign?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 188 of 649
188. Question
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 189 of 649
189. Question
Refer to the diagram below. The "taxiwayending" marker
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 190 of 649
190. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Use the sign and taxiway diagram. You are approaching the intersection on taxiway 5 and see the sign at the left of the intersection. Taxiway number 2 is identified as
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 191 of 649
191. Question
Refer to the diagram below. This sign is a visual clue that
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 192 of 649
192. Question
A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person's faculties, is grounds for a
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 193 of 649
193. Question
"Runway Holding Position Markings" on taxiways
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 194 of 649
194. Question
Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 195 of 649
195. Question
A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 196 of 649
196. Question
Refer to the diagram below. You are directed to taxi to runway 10. You see this sign at a taxiway intersection while taxiing. Which way should you proceed?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 197 of 649
197. Question
The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 198 of 649
198. Question
To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propeller, a person is required to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 199 of 649
199. Question
What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 200 of 649
200. Question
To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 201 of 649
201. Question
To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 202 of 649
202. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 203 of 649
203. Question
Refer to the diagram below. At what point on the airport diagram could a pilot expect to see this sign?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 204 of 649
204. Question
When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 205 of 649
205. Question
Refer to the diagram below. If you were on a taxiway approaching or leading to Runway 22, which sign would you see?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 206 of 649
206. Question
Refer to the diagram below. Sign 1 confirms your position on
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 207 of 649
207. Question
Refer to the diagram below. You are viewing this sign from the cockpit as you hold short of the runway. The air traffic controller clears you to back taxi on the runway for a full length departure on Runway 8. Which way would you turn to begin the back taxi?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 208 of 649
208. Question
Refer to the diagram below. You are viewing this sign from the cockpit as you hold short of the runway. The air traffic controller clears you to back taxi on the runway for a full length departure on Runway 26. Which way would you turn to begin the back taxi?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 209 of 649
209. Question
Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 210 of 649
210. Question
Refer to the diagram below. You are holding short for an intersection departure on Runway 8 with the sign in front of you. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway to depart Runway 8?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 211 of 649
211. Question
Refer to the diagram below. You are holding short for an intersection departure on Runway 26 with the sign in front of you. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway for departure?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 212 of 649
212. Question
To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 213 of 649
213. Question
Refer to the diagram below. If cleared for an intersection takeoff on runway 8, you see this sign at the intersection hold short position. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 214 of 649
214. Question
Refer to the diagram below. You see this sign when holding short of the runway. You receive clearance to back taxi on the runway for a full-length runway 8 departure. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 215 of 649
215. Question
What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 216 of 649
216. Question
What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 217 of 649
217. Question
To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crew member, and operated under Part 91, a person must
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 218 of 649
218. Question
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 219 of 649
219. Question
If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 220 of 649
220. Question
Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 221 of 649
221. Question
No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, at least
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 222 of 649
222. Question
To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crew member, and operated under Part 91, a person must
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 223 of 649
223. Question
Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 224 of 649
224. Question
To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a pilot must have accomplished, within the preceding 12 months, at least
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 225 of 649
225. Question
To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 226 of 649
226. Question
What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot-airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carriage of passengers
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 227 of 649
227. Question
A person with a Commercial Pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation or hire, if that person
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 228 of 649
228. Question
What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 229 of 649
229. Question
What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 230 of 649
230. Question
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 231 of 649
231. Question
An aircraft is on a stop 460 NM from base. It develops a mechanical problem. You get a technician to fix the problem. Who is responsible for the airworthiness of the aircraft?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 232 of 649
232. Question
When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 233 of 649
233. Question
A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 234 of 649
234. Question
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 235 of 649
235. Question
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft being operated
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 236 of 649
236. Question
No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S.-registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its execution?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 237 of 649
237. Question
When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 238 of 649
238. Question
The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 239 of 649
239. Question
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 240 of 649
240. Question
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 241 of 649
241. Question
A pilot in command is required to be aware of all of the information pertinent to the flight. This should include what information about the destination airport?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 242 of 649
242. Question
Required flight crewmembers' seatbelts must be fastened
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 243 of 649
243. Question
Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 244 of 649
244. Question
Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 245 of 649
245. Question
With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 246 of 649
246. Question
No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 247 of 649
247. Question
Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 248 of 649
248. Question
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 249 of 649
249. Question
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 250 of 649
250. Question
Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 251 of 649
251. Question
An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 252 of 649
252. Question
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 253 of 649
253. Question
During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 254 of 649
254. Question
A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 255 of 649
255. Question
While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 256 of 649
256. Question
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 257 of 649
257. Question
After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 258 of 649
258. Question
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above ___ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 259 of 649
259. Question
Refer to the diagram below. This taxiway sign would be expected
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 260 of 649
260. Question
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 261 of 649
261. Question
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 262 of 649
262. Question
What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 263 of 649
263. Question
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 264 of 649
264. Question
When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flight, it is important to
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 265 of 649
265. Question
VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 266 of 649
266. Question
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 267 of 649
267. Question
If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 268 of 649
268. Question
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 269 of 649
269. Question
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 270 of 649
270. Question
For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 271 of 649
271. Question
For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 272 of 649
272. Question
Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 273 of 649
273. Question
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 274 of 649
274. Question
When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the preceding
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 275 of 649
275. Question
What is the maximum bearing error(+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 276 of 649
276. Question
Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 277 of 649
277. Question
Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a pilot making VOR operational check for IFR operations?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 278 of 649
278. Question
With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 279 of 649
279. Question
On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 280 of 649
280. Question
Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 281 of 649
281. Question
Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 282 of 649
282. Question
A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 283 of 649
283. Question
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 284 of 649
284. Question
The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible when
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 285 of 649
285. Question
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 286 of 649
286. Question
The commercial pilot operating as the pilot in command of an aircraft may accept or decline a land and hold short clearance (LAHSO)
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 287 of 649
287. Question
Once a pilot-in-command accepts a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance, the clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 288 of 649
288. Question
When should pilots decline a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 289 of 649
289. Question
What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and hold short" clearance?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 290 of 649
290. Question
What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and hold short" clearance?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 291 of 649
291. Question
What information should a pilot have available when encountering LAHSO?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 292 of 649
292. Question
A 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 293 of 649
293. Question
To conduct LAHSO a pilot should have readily available
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 294 of 649
294. Question
Prior to accepting a "land and hold short" clearance (LAHSO) a pilot must confirm the aircraft can stop
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 295 of 649
295. Question
The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 296 of 649
296. Question
Which list accurately reflects some of the documents required to be current and carried in a U. S.-registered civil airplane flying in the United States under day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 297 of 649
297. Question
A commercial pilot is preparing for a VFR flight that will involve carrying passengers 150 NM at night. Prior to the flight what action must the PIC perform?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 298 of 649
298. Question
Prior to departing on a VFR cross-country flight over mountainous terrain, what action must the pilot in command perform?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 299 of 649
299. Question
You are taking a 123 nautical mile VFR flight from one airport to another. Which of the following actions must the pilot in command take?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 300 of 649
300. Question
You are taking a 196 nautical mile VFR cross country flight in mountainous terrain. Which of the following actions must the pilot in command take?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 301 of 649
301. Question
Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over water,
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 302 of 649
302. Question
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 303 of 649
303. Question
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 304 of 649
304. Question
The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 305 of 649
305. Question
If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 306 of 649
306. Question
If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anti collision light system, no person may operate that aircraft
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 307 of 649
307. Question
What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 308 of 649
308. Question
In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 309 of 649
309. Question
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 310 of 649
310. Question
In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 311 of 649
311. Question
Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 312 of 649
312. Question
Which of the following preflight actions is the pilot in command required to take in order to comply with the United States Code of Federal Regulations regarding day Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 313 of 649
313. Question
Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a "restricted" category airplane?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 314 of 649
314. Question
The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 315 of 649
315. Question
No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 316 of 649
316. Question
Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a "primary" category airplane?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 317 of 649
317. Question
Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 318 of 649
318. Question
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 319 of 649
319. Question
After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 320 of 649
320. Question
A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 321 of 649
321. Question
If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being operated
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 322 of 649
322. Question
Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 323 of 649
323. Question
An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 324 of 649
324. Question
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 325 of 649
325. Question
An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 326 of 649
326. Question
Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 327 of 649
327. Question
Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 328 of 649
328. Question
Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 329 of 649
329. Question
A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previou