PPL all questions

1. Question

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if __________.

an airplane is accelerated while on an east or west heading
a left turn is entered from a west heading
an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading

2. Question

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the __________.

magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force
presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass
difference in the location between true north and magnetic north

3. Question

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

Only in straight and level, un-accelerated flight
As long as airspeed is constant
During turns if bank does not exceed 18 degrees of bank

4. Question

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated. then the magnetic compass will normally indicate ______________.

correctly when on a north or south heading
a turn to the south
a turn momentarily

5. Question

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if ________.

a right turn is entered from a North heading
a left turn is entered from a north heading
an aircraft is accelerated while on a North heading

6. Question

In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when _________.

the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading
a right turn is entered from a west heading
a left turn is entered from an east heading

7. Question

In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when _________.

the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading
a right turn is entered from a west heading
a left turn is entered from an east heading

8. Question

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

Airspeed indicator
Vertical Speed Indicator
Altimeter

9. Question

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes plugged?

Airspeed Indicator
VSI
Altimeter

10. Question

If the pitot tube an outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

Altimeter, Airspeed, and Vertical Speed Indicator
Altimeter, Attitude indicator, and turn coordinator
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn coordinator

11. Question

Which instruments will become inoperative if only the static vent becomes clogged?

Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter, Vertical Speed Indicator
Airspeed Only
Altimeter Only

12. Question

What does the red line on the airspeed indicator represent?

airspeed indicator

Never-exceed speed
Maneuvering Speed
Turbulent or rough air speed

13. Question

The caution range of the airplane is __________?

written exam ppl figures

165-208kts
0-60kts
100-165kts

14. Question

The maximum speed which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is ____.

written exam ppl figures

208kts
165kts
100kts

15. Question

What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

written exam ppl figures

55-100kts
55-208kts
55-165kts

16. Question

What is the maximum flap extended speed?

written exam ppl figures

100kts
65kts
165kts

17. Question

Which marking identifies the never exceed speed?

written exam ppl figures

The red radial line
Upper limit of the white arc
Upper limit of the green arc

18. Question

Which color identifies power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

written exam ppl figures

Lower limit of the green arc
Upper limit of the white arc
Upper limit of the green arc

19. Question

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?

written exam ppl figures

Lower limit of the white arc
Lower limit of the green arc
Upper limit of the white arc

20. Question

What is the maximum structural cruising speed?

written exam ppl figures

165kts
100kts
208kts

21. Question

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

Maneuvering Speed
Never-exceed speed
Maximum structural cruising speed

22. Question

Altimeter #1 indicates _____________.

altimeter reading

10,500′
1,500′
500′

23. Question

Altimeter #3 indicates ___________.

altimeter reading

9,500′
10,950′
15,940′

24. Question

Which altimeters indicate more than 10,000′?

altimeter reading

1 and 2
1 only
1,2, and 3

25. Question

Altimeter 2 indicates _________.

altimeter reading

14,500′
1,500′
4,500′

26. Question

What is true altitude?

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface
The height above the standard datum plane

27. Question

What is absolute altitude?

The altitude read directly from the altimeter
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface
The height above the standard datum plane

28. Question

What is density altitude?

The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature
The height above the standard datum plane
The altitude read directly from the altimeter

29. Question

What is pressure altitude?

The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92
The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error
The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure

30. Question

Altimeter setting the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates ______.

true altitude at field elevation
absolute altitude at field elevation
calibrated altitude at field elevation

31. Question

Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

When at sea level under standard conditions
When at 18,000′ msl with the altimeter set at 29.92
If the altimeter has no mechanical error

32. Question

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same?

At standard temperature
When the altimeter has no installation error
At sea level, when the temperature is 0F

33. Question

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

When standard atmospheric conditions exist
When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92″ Hg
When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

34. Question

If you were to change an altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change would the altimeter indicate?

a 700′ increase in indicated altitude
a 700′ decrease in indicated altitude
a 70′ increase in indicated altitude

35. Question

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

Altimeter will indicate 150′ lower
Altimeter will indicate 150′ higher
Altimeter will indicate .15″ Hg higher

36. Question

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being changed, then the altimeter will indicate ________.

lower than the actual altitude above sea level
higher than the actual altitude above sea level
the actual altitude above sea level

37. Question

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

Air temperature warmer than standard
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
Air temperature lower than standard

38. Question

A turn coordinator provides an indication of the __________.

private pilot written exam turn coordinator

movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes
angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30 dergees
attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis

39. Question

To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be __________.

directional gyro written exam

periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses
calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals
set prior to flight on a known heading

40. Question

The proper adjustment to make on a the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the __________.

attitude indicator artificial horizon

miniature airplane to the horizon bar
horizon bar to the miniature airplane
horizon bar to the level flight indication

41. Question

How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?

attitude indicator artificial horizon

By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B)
By the direction of the deflection of the horizon bar (B)
By the direction of the deflection of the banking scale (A)

42. Question

What is a benefit of flying with glass cockpits?

situational awareness is increased
terrain avoidance is gauranteed
there is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight

43. Question

What steps must be taken with a glass cockpit to ensure safe flight?

Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information
Regularly scan each item on the PFD, confirm on the MFD
Use the moving map for primary means of navigation, use the MFD to check engine systems and weather, back up with supplementary forms of information

44. Question

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by _________.

the oil level being too low
operating with too high a viscosity oil
operating with an excessively rich mixture

45. Question

Excessively high engine temperatures will ___________.

cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
not appreciably affect an aircraft engine
cause damage to heat conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins

46. Question

For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on _____________.

the circulation of lubricating oil
a properly functioning thermostat
air flowing over the exhaust manifold

47. Question

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with _________.

too much power and with the mixture set too lean
higher than normal oil pressure
the mixture set too rich

48. Question

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed
reduce climb speed and increase RPM
increase climb speed and increase RPM

49. Question

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

enrich the fuel mixture
increase the RPM
reduce the airspeed

50. Question

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller?

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle
The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output

51. Question

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to _________

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM
avoid high manifold pressure settings with high RPM
always use a rich mixture with a high RPM setting

52. Question

What is an advantage of a constant speed propeller?

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance
Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed
Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations

53. Question

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for _________.

improved engine performance
uniform heat distribution
balanced cylinder head pressure

54. Question

If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected (p-lead), the magneto ________.

may continue to fire
will not operate
will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit

55. Question

With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be ___________.

more susceptible to icing
equally susceptible to icing
less susceptible to icing

56. Question

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

Temperatures between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F with high humidity
Temperatures between 32 degrees F and 50 degrees F and low humidity
Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent

57. Question

If an engine is equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be ________.

loss of RPM
engine roughness
a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature

58. Question

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the _________.

difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure

59. Question

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting _______.

a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM
an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM
a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication

60. Question

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to _______.

decrease engine performance
increase engine performance
have no effect on engine performance

61. Question

Applying carburetor heat will ______.

enrich the fuel/air mixture
result in more air going through the carburetor
not affect the fuel/air mixture

62. Question

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to _______.

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density
decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density
increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure an density of the air

63. Question

While cruising at 9,500′ msl, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500′ msl is made without readjusting the mixture?

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean
There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion
The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation

64. Question

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when ___________.

the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally
hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition
the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective

65. Question

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to __________.

lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed
apply carburetor heat
lean the mixture

66. Question

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause ________.

detonation
lower cylinder head temperatures
a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders

67. Question

The uncontrolled firing in advance of the normal spark ignition is known as ___________.

pre-ignition
combustion
detonation

68. Question

What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

the next higher octane aviation gas
the next lower octane aviation gas
unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating

69. Question

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered good practice because this will _______.

Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks
Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine
Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks

70. Question

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the _________.

fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps
fuel strainer drain
lowest point in the fuel system

71. Question

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?

In the even the engine driven fuel pump fails
Constantly except in starting the engine
All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump

72. Question

What should be the first action when starting an aircraft engine?

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges
Place the magneto or ignition switch monetarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding
Test each brake and the parking brake

73. Question

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot _____.

be at the controls in the cockpit
be in the cockpit and call out all comands
call “contact” before touching the propeller

74. Question

During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by ________.

ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen
congealed oil from the crankcase
moisture from the outside air which has frozen

75. Question

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would __________.

experience avionics equipment failure
probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment
probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

76. Question

A positive indication on an ammeter ___________.

shows the rate of charge on the battery
indicates the aircraft’s battery will soon lose its charge
means more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced

77. Question

To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be ________.

higher than the battery voltage
equal to the battery voltage
less than the battery voltage

78. Question

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea

79. Question

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air
Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
Lighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon

80. Question

The definition of nighttime is

A. sunset to sunrise.
B. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C. the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

81. Question

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

A. Normal, utility, acrobatic.
B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
C. Landplane, seaplane.

82. Question

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

A. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B. Norm al, utility, acrobatic, limited.
C. Transport, restricted, provisional.

83. Question

An ATC clearance provides

A. priority over all other traffic.
B. adequate separation from all traffic.
C. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

84. Question

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

A. VFE·
B. VLOF·
VF C·

85. Question

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

V-le
V-lo
V-fe

86. Question

V-no is defined as the

normal operating range
never-exceed speed
maximum structural cruising speed

87. Question

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

V-a
V-lo
V-ne

88. Question

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

V-y
V-a
V-x

89. Question

V-so is defined as the

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration
stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed

90. Question

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

V-y
V-x
V-a

91. Question

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate
Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

92. Question

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

For informational purposes only
They are mandatory.
They are voluntary

93. Question

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

Yes, under VFR conditions only
Yes, ADs are only voluntary
Yes, if allowed by the AD

94. Question

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

14 CFR Part 91.403
14 CFR Part 43.3
14 CFR Part 61.113

95. Question

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

Student or Recreational pilot
Private or Commercial pilot
None of the answers are correct

96. Question

What preventive maintenance is performed on an aircraft, what paperwork is required?

A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

97. Question

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

Servicing landing gear wheel bearings
Alteration of main seat support brackets
Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used

98. Question

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

Repair of landing gear brace struts.
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

99. Question

Is it legal to fly on the dealer’s registration after a buyer purchased an airplane from that dealer?

Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 30 days.
No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered.
Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 120 days.

100. Question

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
Only when passengers are carried.
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

101. Question

What documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of a biennial flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

102. Question

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
person in a position of authority.
local law enforcement officer.

103. Question

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

104. Question

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which division should this be reported to?

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

105. Question

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on

May 3, 1 year later.
May 31, 1 year later.
May 31, 2 years later.

106. Question

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

107. Question

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 20 this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

August 10, 3 years later.
August 31, 5 years later.
August 31, 3 years later.

108. Question

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3 this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

May 3, 1 year later.
May 31, 1 year later.
May 31, 2 years later.

109. Question

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on

August 10, 2 years later.
August 31, 5 years later.
August 31, 2 years later.

110. Question

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

October 21, 2 years later.
October 31, next year.
October 31, 5 years later.

111. Question

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

112. Question

What is the defnition of a high-performance airplane?

An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

113. Question

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

114. Question

In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have:

made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane.
received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.

115. Question

As pilot in command with a recreational certificate, you must have in your personal possession while exercising the privileges of that certificate

a current logbook endorsement for an accomplished flight review.
a current pilot and medical certificate.
a pilot logbook documenting recent experience requirements.

116. Question

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on October 30 this year, when is the next flight review required?

October 30, 2 years later.
October 31, next year.
October 31, 2 years later.

117. Question

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

a biennial flight review
an annual flight review
a semiannual flight review

118. Question

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8 this year, when is the next flight review required?

August 8, next year.
August 31, 1 year later.
August 31, 2 years later.

119. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

6 calendar months
12 calendar months
24 calendar months

120. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

90 days
12 calendar months
24 calendar months

121. Question

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is

1829
1859
1929

122. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

make and model
category and class, but not type
category, class, and type, if a type rating is required

123. Question

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

sunset to sunrise
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight

124. Question

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

the same category and class of aircraft to be used
the same type of aircraft to be used
any aircraft

125. Question

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

may be touch and go or full stop
must be touch and go
must be to a full stop

126. Question

Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

90 days
60 days
30 days

127. Question

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

30 days after the date of the move
60 days after the date of the move
90 days after the date of the move

128. Question

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of

100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider.
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

129. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months

at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft
at least three flights in a powered glider
at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

130. Question

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

131. Question

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

132. Question

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

If the passengers pay all of the operating expenses.
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
There is no exception.

133. Question

A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft

A current logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
The pilot logbook to show recent experience requirements to serve as pilot in command have been met.
A current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.

134. Question

How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carry on board?

One
Two
Three

135. Question

When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft at night?

When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile.
When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 3 statute miles.
When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 5 statute miles.

136. Question

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may

be paid for the operating expenses of a flight.
not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

137. Question

When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport?

After receiving ground and flight instructions on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement.
After attaining 100 hours of pilot-in-command time and a logbook endorsement.
12 calendar months after receiving his or her recreational pilot certificate and a logbook endorsement.

138. Question

In regard to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may

fly for compensation or hire within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport with a logbook endorsement.
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight from a passenger.

139. Question

Refer to Figure 22 on page 135.) (Refer to area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance

3 miles and clear ofclouds.
3 miles and 1,000 fee above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

140. Question

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certificated for a maximum of how many occupants?

Two
Three
Four

141. Question

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of

160
180
200

142. Question

With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?

One hour before sunrise.
At sunrise.
At the beginning of morning civil twilight.

143. Question

What exception, if any, permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?

If the passenger pays no more than the operating expenses.
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
There is no exception.

144. Question

When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?

Anytime the control tower is in operation.
When the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the surface visibility is at least 2 miles.
After receiving training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor.

145. Question

May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?

Yes, if the flight is only incidental to that business.
Yes, providing the aircraft does not carry a person or property for compensation time.
No, it is not allowed.

146. Question

Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?

Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 2,500 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.
Any time when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet, and the visibility is more than 1 mile.
Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.

147. Question

When must a recreational pilot have a pilot in-command flight check?

Every 400 hours
Every 180 days
If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days

148. Question

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds
3 miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds

149. Question

Refer to Figure 26 on page 138.) (Refer to area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

1 mile and clear of clouds
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds
3 miles and clear of clouds

150. Question

(Refer to Figure 26 on page 138.) (Refer to area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are

1 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds
3 miles and clear of clouds
1 mile and clear of clouds

151. Question

A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least

3 miles
4 miles
5 miles

152. Question

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

1 mile
3 miles
5 miles

153. Question

If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight?

2021
2043
2121

154. Question

Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?

The buyer pays all of the operating expenses.
The flight is not outside the United States.
None.

155. Question

When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?

If the pilot has logged 100 hours of flight time in powered aircraft.
If the pilot has an endorsement in his or her pilot logbook from an authorized flight instructor.
It is not allowed.

156. Question

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equiped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?

1200
7600
7700

157. Question

When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feel MSL?

When 2,000 feet AGL or below
When 2,500 feet AGL or below
When outside of controlled airspace

158. Question

During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feel MSL?

1 mile
3 miles
5 miles

159. Question

During daytime, what is the minimum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

1 mile
3 miles
5 miles

160. Question

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 MSL
1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 MSL.
the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

161. Question

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

Federal Aviation Administration.
pilot in command.
aircraft manufacturer.

162. Question

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A certificated aircraft mechanic.
The pilot in command.
The owner or operator.

163. Question

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

On the Airworthiness Certificate.
In the current FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placard, or any combination thereof.
In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

164. Question

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?

Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual.
In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

165. Question

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

Only in an emergency.
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.

166. Question

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

167. Question

Under what conditions, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
Under no condition.

168. Question

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

8 hours.
12 hours.
24 hours.

169. Question

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

the designation of an alternate airport.
a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

170. Question

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

review traffic control light signal procedures.
check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

171. Question

What preflight action is specifically required o the pilot prior to each flight?

Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

172. Question

For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must

file a VFR flight plan with the nearest flight service.
obtain and squawk a discrete transponder code.
determine runway lengths at airports of intended use.

173. Question

Flight crewmembers are requred to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

takeoffs and landings.
all flight conditions.
flight in turbulent air.

174. Question

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

175. Question

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belt fastened for the entire flight.
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.

176. Question

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
all flight conditions.
flight in turbulent air.

177. Question

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

178. Question

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

over a densely populated area.
in Class D airspace under special VFR.
except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each airport.

179. Question

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

The airship.
The airplane.
Each pilot should alter course to the right.

180. Question

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft.

that has the other to its right.
that is the least maneuverable.
at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

181. Question

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Glider.
Airship.
Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

182. Question

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A balloon.
An aircraft in distress.
An aircraft on final approach to land.

183. Question

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

The airplane pilot should give way to the left.
The glider pilot should give way to the right.
Both pilots should give way to the right.

184. Question

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

The faster aircraft shall give way.
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

185. Question

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

Airship.
Aircraft towing other aircraft.
Gyroplane.

186. Question

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

The motorboat.
The seaplane.
Both should alter course to the right.

187. Question

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

180 knots.
200 knots.
250 knots.

188. Question

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

200 knots.
250 knots.
288 knots.

189. Question

When flyinig in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots
230 knots
250 knots

190. Question

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

200 knots
230 knots
250 knots

191. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

192. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft.
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

193. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

500 feet
700 feet
1,000 feet

194. Question

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

195. Question

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimete setting?

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.

196. Question

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
The elevation of the departure area.
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

197. Question

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

14,500 feet MSL
18,000 feet MSL
24,000 feet MSL

198. Question

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

Within 7 days
Within 10 days
Upon request

199. Question

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC
Immediately
Within 7 days

200. Question

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.

201. Question

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under whcih situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

When operating in Class A airspace at night.
If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions.
In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

202. Question

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

when the clearance states, "at pilot's discretion."
an emergency.
if the clearance contains a restriction.

203. Question

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

Take no special action since you are pilot in command.
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
File a report to the FAA Administration, as soon as possible.

204. Question

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

Class C
Class E
Class G

205. Question

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

an operable VOR or TACAN receiver.
instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.
an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

206. Question

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Recreational Pilot Certificate.
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

207. Question

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.
With the controlling agency's authorization.
Regulations do not allow this.

208. Question

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Class A
Class B
Class C

209. Question

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

210. Question

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

211. Question

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.

212. Question

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.

213. Question

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feeet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
5 miles and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

214. Question

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

1,000 feet.
2,000 feet.
1 mile.

215. Question

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

1 mile.
3 miles.
4 miles.

216. Question

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

remain clear of clouds.
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

217. Question

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

218. Question

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.

219. Question

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.

220. Question

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

221. Question

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

222. Question

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

223. Question

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.

224. Question

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.

225. Question

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.
2,000 feet.

226. Question

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least

1,000 feet and 1 mile.
1,000 feet and 3 miles.
2,500 feet and 3 miles.

227. Question

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

Automated Flight Service Station.
Air Traffic Control Tower.
Air Route Traffic Control Center.

228. Question

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

229. Question

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
flight visibility is at least 3 miles.

230. Question

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

231. Question

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

1 mile flight visibility.
1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.

232. Question

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic curse of 175? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.

4,500 feet.
5,000 feet.
5,500 feet.

233. Question

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135?

Even thousand.
Even thousand plus 500 feet.
Odd thousand plus 500 feet.

234. Question

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?

4,000 feet.
4,500 feet.
5,000 feet.

235. Question

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

magnetic heading of 0 degrees through 179 degrees'.
magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
true course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.

236. Question

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.

237. Question

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.

238. Question

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

Anytime.
At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

239. Question

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

Every 24 months.
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.

240. Question

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

After one-half the battery's useful life.
During each annual and 100-hour inspection.
Every 24 calendar months.

241. Question

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
Sunset to sunrise.

242. Question

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

12,500 feet MSL
14,000 feet MSL
15,000 feet MSL

243. Question

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

the entire flight time at those altitudes.
that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
that fight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.

244. Question

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).

245. Question

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
Class D airspace.
Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

246. Question

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.

247. Question

A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

60 days.
90 days.
180 days.

248. Question

An approved parachute constructed of natural fibers may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

60 days.
120 days.
180 days.

249. Question

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

Flight under instrument flight rules.
Flight over a densely populated area.
Flight within Class D airspace.

250. Question

Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
from the primary airport within Class D airspace.

251. Question

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with?

Owner or operator.
Repair station.
Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).

252. Question

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

pilot in command.
owner or operator.
mechanic who performs the work.

253. Question

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

Owner or operator
Certified mechanic
Repair station.

254. Question

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

owner or operator.
pilot in command.
mechanic who performed the work.

255. Question

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft’s operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

by any private pilot.
with passengers on board.
for compensation or hire.

256. Question

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a

Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
Private Pilot Certificate.
Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate.

257. Question

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

3312.5 hours
3402.5 hours
3395.5 hours

258. Question

An aircraft’s annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than

July 1, next year.
July 13, next year.
July 31, next year.

259. Question

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

Annual condition and 100-hou inspections.
Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.
Annual condition and 50-hour inspections.

260. Question

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

1349.6 hours
1359.36 hours
1369.6 hours

261. Question

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

6 calendar months.
12 calendar months.
24 calendar months.

262. Question

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

September 30 2015.
September 1, 2016.
September 30, 2016.

263. Question

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate.
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.

264. Question

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the

Airworthiness Certificate.
Registration Certificate.
aircraft maintenance records.

265. Question

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?

Aircraft maintenance records.
Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.
Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.

266. Question

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.
log book endorsement from a flight instructor.
review of the maintenance records.

267. Question

The party directly responsible for the pre-takeoff briefing of passengers is the

Pilot in Command.
Safety Officer.
Ground Crew.

268. Question

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of

all passengers.
the pilot.
a crewmember.

269. Question

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts is the responsibility of

all passengers.
the pilot.
a crewmember.

270. Question

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts is the responsibility of

all passengers.
the pilot in command.
the right seat pilot.

271. Question

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

immediately.
within 48 hours.
within 7 days.

272. Question

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

An in-flight generator/alternator failure.
An in-flight fire.
an in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.

273. Question

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
An in-flight radio communications failure.
An in-flight generator or alternator failure.

274. Question

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A forced landing due to engine failure.
Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
Flight control system malfunction or failure.

275. Question

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

276. Question

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?

5
7
10

277. Question

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

within 7 days.
within 10 days.
when requested.

278. Question

Which statement best defines hypoxia?

A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed.
A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.

279. Question

Which is not a type of hypoxia?

Histotoxic.
Hypoxic.
Hypertoxic.

280. Question

Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight?

Promptly descent altitude.
Increase cabin air flow.
Avoid sudden inhalations.

281. Question

A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by

closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane.
slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.
increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

282. Question

Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as

hyperventilation.
aerosinusitis.
aerotitis.

283. Question

When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as

hyperventilation.
aerosinusitis.
aeroitis.

284. Question

Which would mostly likely result in hyperventilation?

Emotional tension, anxiety or fear.
The excessive consumption of alcohol.
An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

285. Question

A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by

slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation.
increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

286. Question

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear.
visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

287. Question

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear.
body signals are used to interpret flight altitude.
eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

288. Question

If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to

rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations.
consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate.

289. Question

A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

special disorientation.
hyperventilation.
hypoxia.

290. Question

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as

special disorientation.
hyperventilation.
hypoxia.

291. Question

The danger of spacial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by

shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel.
having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.

292. Question

Which techniques should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

293. Question

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

294. Question

What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight.
Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.

295. Question

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

Look only at far away, dim lights.
Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.
Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

296. Question

The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
scan the visual field very rapidly.
look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.

297. Question

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

tightness across the forehead.
loss of muscular power.
an increased sense of well-being.

298. Question

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

altitude increases.
altitude decreases.
air pressure increases.

299. Question

What is a correct response if an exhaust leak were to be detected while in flight.

Increase altitude so the effects of CO would be decreased.
Take deep breaths so as to inhale more oxygen.
Open air vents or windows.

300. Question

Effects of carbon monoxide poisoning include

dizziness, blurred vision, and loss of muscle power.
sweating, increased breathing, and paleness.
motion sickness, tightness across the forehead, and drowsiness

301. Question

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

Application of stress management and risk element procedures.
The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.
Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.

302. Question

What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft’s limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

Scud running.
Mind set.
Peer pressure.

303. Question

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

Continue flight into instrument conditions.
Getting behind the aircraft.
Duck-under syndrome.

304. Question

What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?

Checklists.
Situational awareness.
Flying outside the envelope.

305. Question

Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some dregree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?

Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision-making process.
Poor risk management and lack of stress management.

306. Question

In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.
Making a rational judgment.

307. Question

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Antiauthority”?

Rules do not apply in this situation.
I know what I am doing.
Follow the rules.

308. Question

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Impulsivity”?

It could happen to me.
Do it quickly to get it over with.
Not so fast, think first.

309. Question

What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of “Invulnerability”?

It cannot be that bad.
It could happen to me.
It will not happen to me.

310. Question

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Macho”?

I can do it.
Taking chances is foolish.
Nothing will happen.

311. Question

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Resignation”?

What is the use?
Someone else is responsible.
I am not helpless.

312. Question

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?

The FAA.
The medical examiner.
The pilot.

313. Question

What is the one common factor which effects most preventable accidents?

Structural failure.
Mechanical malfunction.
Human error.

314. Question

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity?

Do it quickly to get it over with.
It could happen to me.
Not so fast, think first.

315. Question

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

movement of air.
pressure differential.
heat exchange.

316. Question

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.
Variation of terrain elevation.
Coriolis force.

317. Question

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly, while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to:

stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
friction between the wind and the surface.
stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

318. Question

The development of thermals depends upon

a counterclockwise circulation of air.
temperature inversions.
solar heating.

319. Question

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by

warm, dense air moving inland from over the water.
water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land.
cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

320. Question

The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a

frontolysis.
frontogenesis.
front.

321. Question

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

wind direction.
type of precipitation.
stability of the air mass.

322. Question

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is

a change in termperature.
an increase in cloud coverage.
an increase in relative humidity.

323. Question

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

Precipitation static.
Wind-shear turbulence.
Steady rain.

324. Question

A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a

prefrontal system.
squall line.
dry line.

325. Question

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.

326. Question

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

Cumulus.
Dissipating.
Mature.

327. Question

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

mature stage.
downdraft stage.
cumulus stage.

328. Question

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

Roll cloud.
Continuous updraft.
Frequent lightning.

329. Question

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

The appearance of an anvil top.
Precipitation beginning to fall.
Maximum growth rate of the clouds.

330. Question

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

squall line thunderstorms.
steady-state thunderstorms.
warm front thunderstorms.

331. Question

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

Lightning.
Heavy rain.
Hail.

332. Question

The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with

formation of the anvil top.
the start of precipitation.
continuous downdrafts.

333. Question

The destination airport has one runway, B-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left-hand pattern to runway B. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to

depart expecting the thunderstorm to dissipate prior to arrival, then land on runway B.
delay departure until the thunderstorm has dissipated.
fly an approach to runway 26 since any unexpected wind due to the storm will be westerly.

334. Question

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

small termperature/dewpoint spread.
stratform clouds.
visible moisture.

335. Question

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.
Freezing drizzle.
Freezing rain.

336. Question

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there

are thunderstorms in the area.
has been cold front passage.
is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

337. Question

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as

an inactive frontal cloud.
a funnel cloud.
a lenticular cloud.

338. Question

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as

mammatocumulus clouds.
standing lenticular clouds.
roll clouds.

339. Question

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.
parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.

340. Question

Where does wind shear occur?

Only at higher altitudes.
Only at lower altitudes.
At all altitudes, in all directions.

341. Question

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

10 knots.
15 knots.
25 knots.

342. Question

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.
In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.

343. Question

If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 degrees F, what type weather is most likely to develop?

Freezing precipitation.
Thunderstorms.
Fog or low clouds.

344. Question

What is meant by the term “dewpoint?”

The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
The temperature at which dew will always form.
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

345. Question

The amount of water vapor which air can hold expands on the

dewpoint.
air temperature.
stability of the air.

346. Question

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated ait?

Evaporation and sublimation.
Heating and condensation.
Supersaturation and evaporation.

347. Question

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface.
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface.

348. Question

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

water vapor condenses.
water vapor is present.
relative humidity reaches 100 percent.

349. Question

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

Rain-induced fog.
Unslope fog.
Steam fog.

350. Question

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains.
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

351. Question

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

352. Question

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

Radiation fog and ice fog.
Steam fog and ground fog.
Advection fog and upslope fog.

353. Question

Clouds are divided into four families according to their

outward shape.
height range.
composition.

354. Question

The suffix nimbus used in naming clouds, means

A cloud with extensive vertical development.
a rain cloud.
a middle cloud containing ice pellets.

355. Question

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and

unstable air containing an exceed of condensation nuclei.
unstable, moist air.
either stable or unstable air.

356. Question

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

Towering cumulus.
Cumulonimbus.
Nimbostratus.

357. Question

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

Cirrus clouds.
Nimbostratus clouds.
Towering cumulus clouds.

358. Question

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expecct the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82 degrees F and the dewpoint is 38 degrees F?

9,000 feet AGL.
10,000 feet AGL.
11,000 feet AGL.

359. Question

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 degrees F and the dewpoint is 48 degrees F?

4,000 feet MSL.
5,000 feet MSL.
6,000 feet MSL.

360. Question

What is a characteristic of stable air?

Stratiform clouds.
Unlimited visibility.
Cumulus clouds.

361. Question

When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it

produces stratus type clouds.
causes showers and thunderstorms.
develops convective turbulence.

362. Question

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

Stratus clouds with little vertical development.
Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence.
Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.

363. Question

What are characteristics of unstable air?

Turbulence and good surface visibility.
Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.

364. Question

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

Showery precipitation.
Turbulent air.
Poor surface visibility.

365. Question

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

366. Question

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
Poor visibility and smooth air.
Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.

367. Question

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

Atmospheric pressure.
Actual lapse rate.
Surface temperature.

368. Question

What would decrease the stability of an air mass?

Warming from below.
Cooling from below.
Decrease in water vapor.

369. Question

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A stable layer of air.
An unstable layer of air.
Chinook winds or mountain slopes.

370. Question

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
the movement of cooler air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

371. Question

When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience

clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
an increase in temperature as altitude increases.

372. Question

Which weather conditions shoudl be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze or low clouds.
Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze and light rain.
Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds and showery precipitation.

373. Question

When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state

the pilot in command's full name and address.
a summary of your qualifications.
whether the flight is VFR or IFR.

374. Question

To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request

a general briefing.
an abbreviated briefing.
a standard briefing.

375. Question

When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request

an outlook briefing.
a standard briefing.
an abbreviated briefing.

376. Question

Which type weather briefing should a pilot request when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?

Outlook briefing.
Abbreviated briefing.
Standard briefing.

377. Question

Which type of weather briefingn should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

An outlook briefing.
A supplemental briefing.
An abbreviated briefing.

378. Question

A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

an outlook briefing.
a forecast briefing.
a prognostic briefing.

379. Question

What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing faciity for preflight weather information?

The intended route of flight radio frequencies.
The intended route of flight and destination.
The address of the pilot in command.

380. Question

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state

the aircraft identification or the pilot's name.
true airspeed.
fuel on board.

381. Question

To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request

an abbreviated briefing.
a standard briefing.
an outlook briefing.

382. Question

What should pilots state intially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

Tell the number of occupants on board.
State their total flight time.
Identify themselves as pilots.

383. Question

You plan to phone a weather briefing faciity for preflight weather information. uou should

provide the number of occupants on board.
identify yourself as a pilot.
begin with your route or flight.

384. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?

Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain.
Sky 7000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, heavy rain.
Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2 SM, with rain.

385. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?

All.
KINK, KBOI, and KJFK.
KINK, KBOI, and KLAX.

386. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from

180 degrees true at 4 knots.
180 degrees magnetic at 4 knots.
040 degrees true at 18 knots.

387. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?

Calm.
110 degrees at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots.
111 degrees at 2 knots, gusts 18 knots.

388. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means

blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM.
rain began at 1835Z.
the barometer has risen .35 Hg.

389. Question

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the

lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.
lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken or thin.

390. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?

505 feet AGL.
1,295 feet AGL.
6,586 feet AGL.

391. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are

1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL.
5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL.
7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.

392. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are

090 degrees at 21 knots and -7 degrees C.
090 degrees at 21 MPH and -9 degrees F.
090 degrees at 21 knots and -9 degrees C.

393. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specifc altitude is

moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet.
moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.
light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.

394. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The intensity and type of icing report by a pilot is

light to moderate.
light to moderate clear.
light to moderate rime.

395. Question

Refer to the diagram below. In the TAF for KMEM, what does “SHRA” stand for?

Rain showers.
A shift in wind direction is expected.
A significant change in precipitation is possible.

396. Question

Refer to the diagram below. During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility si forecast for KOKC?

Greater than 6 statute miles.
Possibly 6 statute miles.
Not forecasted.

397. Question

Refer to the diagram below. In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes

overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
overcast at 200 feet with a 40 percent probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

398. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?

1200Z to 1800Z.
1200Z to 2400Z.
1800Z to 2400Z.

399. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be

1/2 statute mile.
3 statute miles.
6 statute miles.

400. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?

No significant wind.
Variable in direction at 6 knots.
Variable in direction at 4 knots.

401. Question

Refer to the diagram below. In the TAF from KOKC, the “FM (FROM) Group” is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from

160 degrees at 10 knots.
180 degrees at 10 knots.
180 degrees at 10 knots, becoming 200 degrees at 13 knots.

402. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is

Nimbostratus.
Cumulonimbus.
Scattered cumulus.

403. Question

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate

large areas of low ceilings and fog.
location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.
location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend.

404. Question

How should contact be established with a Flight Service Station, and what service would be expected?

Call Flight Service on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings.
Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service pertaining to severe weather.
Call Flight Service on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and the thunderstorm activity along proposed route.

405. Question

What service should a pilot normally expect from Flight Service?

Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather.
Local information about restaurants, hotels, and rental car services.

406. Question

En route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

122.2 MHz.
122.1 MHz.
123.6 MHz.

407. Question

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

Magnetic direction and knots.
Magnetic direction and miles per hour.
True direction and knots.

408. Question

When the term “light and viarable” is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is

0000 and less than 7 knots.
9900 and less than 5 knots.
9999 and less than 10 knots.

409. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?

230 degrees magnetic at 39 knots.
230 degrees true at 39 knots.
230 degrees true at 106 knots.

410. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 feet.

050 degrees true at 7 knots, temperature missing.
200 degrees magnetic at 6 knots, temperature +3 degrees C.
200 degrees true at 6 knots, temperature +3 degrees C.

411. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?

230 degrees magnetic at 25 knots.
230 degrees true at 32 knots.
230 degrees true at 25 knots.

412. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?

230 degrees true at 39 knots.
230 degrees true at 56 knots.
230 degrees magnetic at 56 knots.

413. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet.

230 degrees magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47 degrees C.
230 degrees true at 53 knots, temperature -47 degrees C.
230 degrees true at 21 knots, temperature -4 degrees C.

414. Question

How are significant weather prognostic charts best used by a pilot?

For overall planning at all altitudes.
For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage.

415. Question

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?

Small aircraft only.
Large aircraft only.
All aircraft.

416. Question

AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to

only IFR pilots.
all pilots.
only VFR pilots.

417. Question

Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?

Convective SIGMET.
SIGMET.
AIRMET.

418. Question

What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?

Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.
Severe icing, severe turbulence, or widespread dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.
Surface winds greater than 40 knots or thunderstorms equal to or greater than video integrator processor (VIP), level 4.

419. Question

What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?

Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area.
Moderate or severe turbulence.
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.

420. Question

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the

Inflight aviation weather advisories.
weather depiction chart.
area forecast.

421. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.

47 degrees 02'N – 116 degrees 11'W.
47 degrees 33'N – 116 degrees 11'W.
47 degrees 32'N – 116 degrees 41'W.

422. Question

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.
Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
The O degree line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

423. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?

47 degrees 25'N – 98 degrees 06' W.
47 degrees 25'N – 99 degrees 54' W.
47 degrees 55'N – 98 degrees 06' W.

424. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. Which airport is located at approximately 47 degrees 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101 degrees 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

Fischer.
Crooked Lake.
Johnson.

425. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. Which airport is located at approximately 47 degrees 34’30”N latitude and 100 degrees 43’00”W longitude?

Linrud.
Makeeff.
Johnson.

426. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. Which airport is located at approximately 47 degrees 21’N latitude and 101 degrees 01’W longitude?

Underwood.
Pietsch.
Washburn.

427. Question

Refer to the diagrams below, Pierre Regional Airport (N44 degrees 22.96′ W100 degrees 17.16”). What frequency can be monitored for Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service in this area?

119.025 MHz.
112.5 MHz.
122.2 MHz.

428. Question

Refer to the diagrams below, area 3. Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

36 degrees 24' N – 76 degrees 01' W.
36 degrees 48' N – 76 degrees 01' W.
47 degrees 24' N – 75 degrees 58' W.

429. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42 degrees 20.67′) W 96 degrees 19.42′), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed?

122.95 MHz.
119.45 MHz.
118.7 MHz.

430. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 1. The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

Class C.
Class E.
Class G.

431. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 4. What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A?

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

432. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 1. What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.
Mode transponder and two-way radio.
Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.

433. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is

19 feet.
36 feet.
360 feet.

434. Question

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.
Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

435. Question

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

10,000 feet MSL.
14,500 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.

436. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Mindt (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

sea level to 2000 feet MSL.
2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.
2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.

437. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. What type military operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.
Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.

438. Question

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

1,000 feet AGL.
2,000 feet AGL.
3,000 feet AGL.

439. Question

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

440. Question

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

filed a IFR flight plan.
received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

441. Question

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

NOTAMs.
Chart Supplement.
Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.

442. Question

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.

443. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 1. The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are

1 mile and clear of clouds.
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

444. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.
7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.

445. Question

Refer to the diagrams below, area 1. For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to

notes on the border of the chart.
the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement.
the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication,

446. Question

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

447. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 1. What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

1,010 feet MSL.
1,273 feet MSL.
1,283 feet MSL.

448. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

823 feet MSL.
1,013 feet MSL.
1,403 feet MSL.

449. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (area 2)?

4,000
3,000
1,700

450. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 4. The airspace directly overlying Forth Worth Meacham is

Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL.
Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL.
Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

451. Question

Refer to the diagram below. At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks.
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.
Addison and Dallas Executive.

452. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. The floor of class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is

at the surface.
3,000 feet MSL.
3,100 feet MSL.

453. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 7. The airspace overlying McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

700 feet AGL.
2,900 feet MSL.
2,500 feet MSL.

454. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 8. What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?

2,731 feet ASL.
3,549 feet ASL.
3,349 feet MSL.

455. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 4. The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

at the surface.
3,200 feet MSL.
4,000 feet MSL.

456. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 5. The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a

VOR.
VORTAC.
VORDME.

457. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a

meteorological observation area.
military observation area.
military operations area.

458. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery timing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

459. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport.

Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace – 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace – 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

460. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

1 mile and clear of clouds.
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

461. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.

Class G airspace – surface u to but not including 1,200 feet AGL. Class E airspace – 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Class G airspace – surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL. Class E airspace – 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

462. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than

2,000 feet AGL.
2,500 feet AGL.
3,000 feet AGL.

463. Question

Refer to the diagram below, east of area 5. The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.
Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

464. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)?

A private airport with a grass runway.
A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface.
An abandoned paved airport having landmark value.

465. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport?

C
D
E

466. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at

the surface.
700 feet AGL.
1,200 feet MSL.

467. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (area 4) to McCampbell Airport (area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL?

Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace.
Leaving and entering the alert areas and entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace.
Leaving and entering the alert areas, entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace, and passing through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace.

468. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gross Airport (DVO) (area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering

the Class B airspace.
the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.
both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.

469. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An aircraft takes off from Gross Airport (area 4) and flies southeast 2.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?

6,000 feet MSL.
4,200 feet MSL.
3,200 feet MSL.

470. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 1. Dubey Airport is

a privately owned airport restricted to use.
a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace.
an airport restricted to use by sport pilots only.

471. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 6. Sky Way Airport is

an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots.
a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace.
a nonpublic-use airport.

472. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 6. The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
10,000 feet MSL.
2,100 feet AGL.

473. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 1. What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

2,503 feet MSL.
2,901 feet MSL.
3,297 feet MSL.

474. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (area 6) is classifed as Class

B
C
D

475. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the dotted outlinied area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near area 3?

Restricted airspace.
Military operations area.
Wilderness area.

476. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?

3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.
0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

477. Question

Refer to the diagrams below, area 3. For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to

notes on the border of the chart.
the Chart Supplement.
the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

478. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

1,498 feet MSL.
1,531 feet AGL.
1,548 feet MSL.

479. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

1,200 feet AGL.
1,300 feet MSL.
1,700 feet MSL.

480. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010 degrees radial is

454 feet MSL.
429 feet AGL.
417 feet MSL.

481. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The flag symbols at Stateboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.
airports with special traffic patterns.
visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.

482. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 5. The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

Unmarked blimp hangars at 308 feet MSL.
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL.
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.

483. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a

compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.
compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.
visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

484. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?

Commerce (area 6) and Rockwell (area 1).
Rockwell (area 1) and Sulphur Springs (area 5).
Commerce (area 6) and Sulphur Springs (area 5).

485. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?

Minot International (area 1).
Garrison (area 2).
Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3).

486. Question

Refer to the diagram below. On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?

117.1 MHz.
118.0 MHz.
122.2 MHz.

487. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

122.8 MHz.
122.9 MHz.
123.0 MHz.

488. Question

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

25 miles
20 miles.
10 miles.

489. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

127.25 MHz.
122.95 MHz.
126.35 MHz.

490. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

122.95 MHz.
126.0 MHz.
133.4 MHz.

491. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 2. What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?

Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency., 122.9 MHz.
Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz.
Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.

492. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 4. The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

122.2 MHz.
123.0 MHz.
123.6 MHz.

493. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 5. What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

122.2 MHz.
122.8 MHz.
123.6 MHz.

494. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?

Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure.
Contact Elizabeth City tower on 120.5.
Radio need not be used.

495. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 3. What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.
Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.

496. Question

Refer ot the diagrams below., area 2. At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

122.05 MHz.
122.1/108.8 MHz.
122.8 MHz.

497. Question

Refer to the diagrams below, area 2. At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

122.05 MHz.
135.075 MHz.
122.8 MHz.

498. Question

Refer to the diagrams below, area 2. What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D’Alene to request fuel?

135.075 MHz.
122.1/108.8 MHz.
122.8 MHz.

499. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Weather information is available at the Coeur D’Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)

over the nearest VOR.
from AWOS 3 135.075.
from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8.

500. Question

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by

distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
downloading them from the FAA website.
subscribing to the Federal Register.

501. Question

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number?

60
70
90

502. Question

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

60
70
90

503. Question

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace area issued under which subject number?

60
70
90

504. Question

Refer to the diagram below. When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with

Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz.
Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.

505. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

In the right on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the left on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
to the right on Runways 14 – 32.

506. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?

Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation.
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation.
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

507. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?

Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.

508. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?

Northwest approximately 4 miles.
Northwest approximately 1 mile.
East approximately 7 miles.

509. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Refer to Crawford Airport (N38 degrees 42.25′ W 107 degrees 38.62′), is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport?

Yes, whenever the airport is attended by airport personnel.
No, as there is no "star" symbol near the airport on the chart, there is no fuel available at this airport.
Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.

510. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Refer to Crawford Airport (N38 degrees 42.25′ W107 degrees 38.62′). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25?

Right hand traffic pattern.
Left hand traffic pattern.
It does not matter because it is an uncontrolled airport.

511. Question

Refer to the diagram below. According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport?

0900 – 0100 hr. local time.
1300 – 0500 hr. local time.
0800 – 0000 hr. local time.

512. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks?

GCA.
AUNICOM.
UNICOM.

513. Question

Refer to the image below. What depicts a class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL?

A dashed blue circle around an airport.
A solid magenta circle around an airport.
A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.

514. Question

Refer to the image below. If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is

1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM.
1,000 feet to 18,000 feet and 40 NM.
1,000 feet up to 60,000 feet and up to 130 NM.

515. Question

Refer to the image below. According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC?

VHF navigational facility with omnidirectional course only.
Collocated VOR navigational facility and UHF standard distance measuring equipment.
Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.

516. Question

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
All current NOTAMs only.
Current Chart Supplement Information and FDC NOTAMs.

517. Question

When NOTAMs are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are

Still a part of a standard weather briefing.
Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot requests published NOTAMs.
Cancelled and are no longer valid.

518. Question

Where can locations for VOR test facilities be found?

Aeronautical Information Manual.
Sectional charts.
Chart Supplement.

519. Question

What should the airborne accuracy of a VOR be?

+/- 4 degrees.
+/- 5 degrees.
+/- 6 degrees.

520. Question

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

180 degrees FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT.
0 degrees TO or 180 degrees FROM, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
0 degrees FROM or 180 degrees TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.

521. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 340 degree radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184 degree radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?

Town of Guyton.
Town of Springfield.
3 miles east of Briggs.

522. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is your approximate position on low altitude airway Victor 1, southwest of Norfolk (area 1), if the VOR receiver indicates you are on the 340 degree radial of Elizabeth City VOR (area 3)?

15 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.
18 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.
23 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.

523. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct?

5
2
8

524. Question

Refer to the diagram below, illustration 5. The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?

North.
East.
South.

525. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3) and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Spring (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?

1
8
7

526. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245 degree radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140 degree radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?

Glenmar Airport.
Caddo Mills Airport.
Majors Airport.

527. Question

Refer to the diagram below, illustration 3. The VOR receivers has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?

East.
Southeast.
West.

528. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR (area 4) and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport (area 2). Which VOR indication is correct?

9
2
4

529. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area 5. The VOR is tuned to the Dallas/Fort Worth VOR. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253 degrees, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft’s position from the VOR?

East-northeast.
North-northeast.
West-southwest.

530. Question

Refer to the diagram below, illustration 8. The VOR receivers has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?

North.
East.
South.

531. Question

How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?

5
6
4

532. Question

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,

the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information.
the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available.

533. Question

Which of the following is a true statement concerning the Global Positioning System?

Advances in technology make it possible to rely completely on GPS units.
GPS databases and paper navigational charts are updated at the same time.
Navigating by GPS must be integrated with other forms of navigation.

534. Question

The Global Positioning System is

ground based.
satellite based.
antenna based.

535. Question

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

15 degrees C and 29.92 Hg.
59 degrees C and 1013.2 millibars.
59 degrees F and 29.92 millibars.

536. Question

What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?

It increases performance.
It decreases performance.
It has no effect on performance.

537. Question

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

An increase in barometric pressure.
An increase in ambient temperature.
A decrease in relative humidity.

538. Question

What effect does high density altitide, as compared to loe density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades.
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air.

539. Question

What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performanc?

It increases engine performance.
It reduces climb performance.
It increases takeoff performance.

540. Question

Which combination of atmospherin conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?

Low temperature, low relative humidity, an low density altitude.
High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.

541. Question

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard the density altitude is

equal to pressure altitude.
lower than pressure altitude.
higher than pressure altitude.

542. Question

You have planned a cross-country flight on a warm spring morning. Your course includes a mountain pass, which is at 11,500 feet MSL. The service ceiling of your airplane is 14,000 feet MSL. After checking the local weather report, you are able to calculate the density altitude of the mountain pass as 14,800 feet MSL. Which of the following is the correct action to take?

Replan your journey to avoid the mountain pass.
Continue as planned since density altitude is only a factor for takeoff.
Continue as planned because mountain thermals will assist your climb.

543. Question

A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,000 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,900 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?

Taking off into the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed.
Try a takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate.
Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.

544. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the density altitude for these conditions: Altimeter setting = 30.35, Runway temperature = +25 degrees F, Airport elevation = 3,894 ft. MSL

2,000 feet MSL.
2,900 feet MSL.
3,500 feet MSL.

545. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50 degrees F on the density altitude if the pressue altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?

1,000 foot increase.
1,100 foot decrease.
1,300 feet increase.

546. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50 degrees F o the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?

1,000 foot increase.
1,100 foot decrease.
1,300 foot increase.

547. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,553 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.

3,527 feet MSL.
3,556 feet MSL.
3,639 feet MSL.

548. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90 degrees F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55 degrees F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?

1,700 foot increase.
1,300 foot increase.
1,700 foot decrease.

549. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.

1,341 feet MSL.
1,451 feet MSL.
1,562 feet MSL.

550. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50 degrees F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?

1,200 foot increase.
1,400 foot increase.
1,650 foot increase.

551. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard

3,010 feet MSL.
2,991 feet MSL.
2,913 feet MSL.

552. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the density altitude for these conditions: Altimeter setting = 29.25, runway temperature = +81 degrees F, Airport elevation = 5,250 ft. MSL

4,600 feet MSL.
5,877 feet MSL.
8,500 feet MSL.

553. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT = 38 degrees C, Pressure altitude = 2,000 feet, Takeoff weight = 2,750 lbs., Headwind Component = calm.

1,150 feet.
1,300 feet.
1,800 feet.

554. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT = Std, Pressure altitude = Sea level, Takeoff weight = 2,700 lb., Headwind component = Calm

1,000 feet.
1,400 feet.
1,700 feet.

555. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT = Std, Pressure altitude = 4,000 feet, Takeoff weight = 2,800 lb., Headwind component = Calm

1,500 feet.
1,750 feet.
2,000 feet.

556. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT = 32 degrees C, Pressure altitude = 2,000 ft., Takeoff weight = 2,500 lb., Headwind component = 20 kts.

650 feet.
850 feet.
1,000 feet.

557. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 1,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power?

10.6 gallons per hour.
11.2 gallons per hour.
11.8 gallons per hour.

558. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000 nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure altitude = 8,000 feet, Temperature = 22 degrees C, Manifold pressure = 20.8″ Hg., Wind = Calm.

60.2 gallons.
70.1 gallons.
73.2 gallons.

559. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the expected fuel consumption for a 500-nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure Altitude = 4,000 feet, Temperature = +29 degrees C, Manifold pressure = 21.3″ Hg, Wind = Calm.

31.4 gallons.
36.1 gallons.
40.1 gallons.

560. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36 degrees F higher than standard.

19.8" Hg.
20.8" Hg.
21.0" Hg.

561. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with 65 percent maximum continuous power at 9,500 feet with a temperature of 36 degrees F below standard?

178 MPH.
181 MPH.
183 MPH.

562. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with full throttle at 10,500 feet with a temperature of 36 degrees F above standard?

190 KTS.
159 KTS.
165 KTS.

563. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the crosswindn component for a landing o Runway 18 i the tower reports the wind as 220 degees at 30 knots?

19 knots.
23 knots.
30 knots.

564. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220 degrees at 30 knots?

19 knots.
23 knots.
26 knots.

565. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45 degree crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots.

25 knots.
29 knots.
35 knots.

566. Question

Refer to the diagram below. With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?

Runway 6.
Runway 29.
Runway 32.

567. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the maximum wind velocity for a 30 degree crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 12 knots?

16 knots.
20 knots.
24 knots.

568. Question

Refer to the diagram below. With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, whicch runway is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?

Runway 10.
Runway 14.
Runway 24.

569. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the total distance required to land. OAT = Std, Pressure altitude = 10,000 feet, Weight = 2,400 lb., Wind component = Calm, Obstacle = 50 feet.

750 feet.
1,925 feet.
1,450 feet.

570. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. OAT= 90 degrees F, Pressure altitude = 4,000 feet, Weight = 2,800 lb., Headwind component = 10 kts.

1,525 feet.
1,775 feet.
1,950 feet.

571. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the total distance required to land. OAT= 90 degrees F, Pressure altitude = 3,000 feet, Weight = 2,900 lb., Headwind component = 10 kts., Obstacle = 50 ft.

1,450 feet.
1,550 feet.
1,725 feet.

572. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the total distance required to land. OAT = 32 degrees F, Pressure altitude = 8,000 feet, Weight = 2,600 lb., Headwind component = 20 knots, Obstacle = 50 feet.

850 feet.
1,400 feet.
1,750 feet.

573. Question

If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster

airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll.
groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the desired touchdown point.

574. Question

Refer to the diagram below Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude = Sea level, Headwind = 4 kts., Temperature = Std.

356 feet.
401 feet.
490 feet.

575. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude = 3,750 feet, Headwind = 12 kts., Temperature = Std.

794 feet.
836 feet.
816 feet.

576. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft., Headwind = Calm, Temperature = 101 F.

495 feet.
545 feet.
445 feet.

577. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude = 1,250 ft., Headwind = 8 kts., Temperature = Std.

275 feet.
366 feet.
470 feet.

578. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-ft. obstacle. Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft., Headwind = 8 kts., Temperature = 41 degrees F, Runway = Hard surface

837 feet.
956 feet.
1,076 feet.

579. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude = 7,500 ft., Headwind = 8 kts., Temperature = 32 degrees F, Runway = Hard surface

1,004 feet.
1,205 feet.
1,506 feet.

580. Question

Which terms are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?

Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
Only the airframe, powerplant, and optional equipment.
Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity.

581. Question

An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?

15.7 gallons.
16.2 gallons.
18.4 gallons

582. Question

If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?

10 gallons.
12 gallons.
15 gallons.

583. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank?

30 pounds.
50 pounds.
300 pounds.

584. Question

Refer to the diagram below. How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?

1 inch to the left.
1 inch to the right.
4.5 inches to the right.

585. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the condition of the airplane: Pilot and copilot = 375 lb., Passengers – aft position = 245 lb., Baggage – 65 lb., Fuel = 70 gal.

185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located left of the aft limit.

586. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the condition of the airplane: Pilot and copilot = 400 lb., Passengers – Aft position = 240 lb., Baggage = 20 lb., Fuel = 75 gallons.

157 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
180 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
180 pounds under allowable gross weight, but CG is located aft of the aft limit.

587. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the condition of the airplane: Pilot and copilot = 316 lb., Passengers Fwd position = 130 lb., Aft position = 147 lb., Baggage = 50 lb., Fuel = 75 gallons.

197 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG 83.6 inches aft of datum.
163 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG 82 inches aft of datum.
197 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG 84.6 inches aft of datum.

588. Question

Given:
The CG is located how far aft of datum?

CG 92.44.
CG 94.01.
CG 119.8.

589. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the maximum amount of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff if loaded as follows:

24 gallons.
32 gallons.
40 gallons.

590. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.

79.2, utility category.
80.8, utility category.
81.2, normal category.

591. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the moment with the following data:

69.9 pound-inches.
75.4 pound-inches.
77.6 pound-inches.

592. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.

78.2, normal category.
79.2, normal category.
80.4, utility category.

593. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope?

105 pounds.
110 pounds.
120 pounds.

594. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. With the airplane loaded as follows, what action can be taken to balance the airplane? Front seat occupants = 411 lbs., Rear seat occupants = 100 lbs., Main wing tanks = 44 gallons.

Fill the auxiliary wing tanks.
Add a 100-pound weight to the baggage compartment.
Transfer 10 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

595. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants = 340 lbs., Rear seat occupants = 295 lbs., Fuel (main wing tanks) = 44 gallons, Baggage = 58 lbs.

20 pounds overweight, CG aft of aft limits.
20 pounds overweight, CG within limits.
20 pounds overweight, CG forward of forward limits.

596. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Calculate the weight and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of the airplane are within limits. Front seat occupants= 350 lbs., Rear seat occupants = 325 lbs., Baggage = 27 lbs., Fuel = 35 gallons.

CG 81.7, out of limits forward.
CG 83.4, within limits.
CG 84.1, within limits.

597. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows? Front seat occupants = 387 lb., Rear seat occupants = 293 lb., Fuel = 35 gallons.

45 pounds.
63 pounds.
220 pounds.

598. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Upon landing, the front passenger (180 pounds) departs the airplane. A rear passenger (204 pounds) moves to the front passenger position. What effect does this have on the CG if the airplane weighted 2,690 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,260 just prior to the passenger transfer?

The CG moves forward approximately 3 inches.
The weight changes, but the CG is not affected.
The CG moves forward approximately 0.1 inch.

599. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff?

Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits.
Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is unaffected.
Weight is reduced to 2,680 pounds and the CG moves forward.

600. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants = 415 lb., Rear seat occupants = 110 lb., Fuel, main tanks = 44 gal., Fuel, aux tanks = 19 gal, Baggage = 32 lb.

19 pounds overweight, CG within limits.
19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward.
Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

601. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Which action can adjust the airplane’s weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff? Front seat occupants = 425 lb., Rear seat occupants = 300 lb., Fuel, main tanks = 44 gal.

Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

602. Question

Refer to the diagram below. If more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be entered in item 15., “Level,” of the flight plan?

Initial cruising altitude.
Highest cruising altitude.
Lowest cruising altitude.

603. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What information should be entered in item 15, “Level,” for a VFR day flight?

Initial cruising altitude.
Highest cruising altitude.
Lowest cruising altitude.

604. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What information should be entered in item 16, “Destination Aerodome,” for a VFR day flight?

The destination airport identifier code and name of the FBO where the airplane will be parked.
The destination airport identifier code.
The destination city and state.

605. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What information should be entered in item 19, “Endurance,” for a VFR day flight?

The estimated time en route plus 30 minutes.
The estimated time en route plus 45 minutes.
The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.

606. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What information should be entered in item 19, “Endurance,” for a VFR day flight?

The actual time en route expressed in hours and minutes.
The estimated time en route expressed in hours and minutes.
The total amount of usable fuel onboard expressed in hours and minutes.

607. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What information should be entered in item 16, “Destination Aerodrome” for a VFR day flight?

The ICAO four-letter indicator of the airport of first intended landing.
The ICAO four-letter indicator of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.
The ICAO four-letter indicator of the airport where the aircraft is based.

608. Question

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

The tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway.
The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.
The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for landing.

609. Question

During the preflight inspection, who is responsible for determining the aircraft as safe for flight?

The pilot in command.
The owner or operator.
The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.

610. Question

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

Pilot in command.
Owner or operator.
Mechanic.

611. Question

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.

612. Question

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

Constant altitude and airspeed.
Constant angle of attack.
Level flight attitude.

613. Question

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.
determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing.

614. Question

When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will

increase the chances of shock cooling the engine.
assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare.
nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.

615. Question

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

at a higher airspeed.
with a steeper descent.
the same as during daytime.

616. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area A. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?

Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
Left aileron up elevator down.

617. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area C. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
Left aileron down, elevator down.
Left aileron up, elevator down.

618. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area B. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?

Right aileron up, elevator up.
Right aileron down, elevator neutral.
Right aileron up, elevator down.

619. Question

Refer to the diagram below, area C. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
Left aileron down, elevator down.

620. Question

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

Aileron down on the downwind side.
Ailerons neutral.
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

621. Question

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

Aileron up on the side from which he wind is blowing.
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Ailerons neutral.

622. Question

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?

Quartering tailwind.
Direct crosswind.
Quartering headwind.

623. Question

The angular difference between true north magnetic north is

magnetic deviation.
magnetic variation.
compass acceleration error.

624. Question

Refer to the diagram below. On what course should the VCR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?

015 degrees.
195 degrees.
201 degrees.

625. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

141 degrees.
321 degrees.
331 degrees.

626. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic course from Cooperstown Airport (area 2) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).

030 degrees.
218 degrees.
210 degrees.

627. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?

359 degrees.
179 degrees.
001 degrees.

628. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6 degrees 30′ E.

075 degrees.
082 degrees.
091 degrees.

629. Question

Refer to the diagram below. On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?

101 degrees.
108 degrees.
281 degrees.

630. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340 degrees at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 136 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6 degrees 30’E.

091 degrees.
095 degrees.
099 degrees.

631. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330 degrees at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10 degrees E.

002 degrees.
012 degrees.
352 degrees.

632. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030 degrees as 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots.

121 degrees.
143 degrees.
136 degrees.

633. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340 degrees at 10 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots.

330 degrees.
325 degrees.
345 degrees.

634. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215 degrees at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 125 knots.

352 degrees.
172 degrees.
166 degrees.

635. Question

If a true heading of 35 degrees results in a ground track of 130 degrees and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from

019 degrees and 12 knots.
200 degrees and 13 knots.
246 degrees and 13 knots.

636. Question

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should

subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle.
add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.
subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle.

637. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330 degrees at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7 degrees E.

003 degrees.
017 degrees.
023 degrees.

638. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090 degrees at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Magnetic variation is 7 degrees W.

230 degrees.
213 degrees.
210 degrees.

639. Question

Refer to the diagrams below. Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280 degrees at 8 knots, and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Magnetic variation is 7 degrees W.

033 degrees.
044 degrees.
038 degrees.

640. Question

How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?

2.45 NM.
3.35 NM.
4.08 NM.

641. Question

How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?

14.25 NM.
15.00 NM.
14.50 NM.

642. Question

On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.

Distance between A and B = 70 NM
Forecast wind = 310 degrees at 15 kt.
Pressure altitude = 8,000 ft.
Ambient temperature = -10 degrees C
True course = 270 degrees

The required indicated airspeed would be approximately

126 knots.
137 knots.
152 knots.

643. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330 degrees at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out

45 minutes.
48-1/2 minutes.
52 minutes.

644. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

29 minutes.
27 minutes.
31 minutes.

645. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215 degrees at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.

38 minutes.
30 minutes.
34 minutes.

646. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the estimated time en route for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 300 degrees at 14 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Add 3 minutes for climb-out.

38 minutes.
43 minutes.
48 minutes.

647. Question

Refer to the diagram below. While en route on Victor 185, a flight crosses the 248 degrees radial of Allendale VOR at 0953 and then crosses the 216 degree radial of Allendale VOR at 1000. What is the estimated time of arrival at Savannah VORTAC?

1023.
1028.
1036.

648. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2)? The wind is from 100 degrees at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 115 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

33 minutes.
27 minutes.
30 minutes.

649. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 290 degrees at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

35 minutes.
39 minutes.
43 minutes.

650. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Estimate the time en route from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340 degrees at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 136 knots. Magnetic variation is 5 degrees east.

17 minutes 30 seconds.
14 minutes 30 seconds.
19 minutes.

651. Question

Refer to the diagram below. What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200 degrees at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7 degrees east.

13 minutes.
16 minutes.
19 minutes.

652. Question

Refer to the diagram below. Estimate the time en route from Addison (area 2) to Dallas Executive (area 3). The wind is from 300 degrees at 15 knots, the true airspeed is 120 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7 degrees east.

8 minutes.
11 minutes.
14 minutes.

653. Question

Refer to the diagram below. En route to First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then over Chesapeake Regional at 1501. At what time should your flight arrive at First Flight?

1516.
1521.
1526.

654. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The time from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents

true heading and airspeed.
true course and groundspeed.
groundspeed and true heading.

655. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents

airspeed and heading.
groundspeed and true course.
true heading and groundspeed.

656. Question

Refer to the diagram below. The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents

wind direction and velocity.
true course and groundspeed.
true heading and groundspeed.

657. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

1345Z.
1445Z.
1545Z.

658. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

2030Z.
2130Z.
2230Z.

659. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?

0930 MST.
1030 MST.
1130 MST.

660. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

1345Z.
1445Z.
1645Z.

661. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1615 MST for a 2-hour 15-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be

1630 PST.
1730 PST.
1830 PST.

662. Question

Refer to the diagram below. An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

1645 PST.
1745 PST.
1845 PST.

663. Question

Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim.
Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

664. Question

Refer to the diagram below. In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90 degrees?

Corners 1 and 4.
Corners 1 and 2.
Corners 2 and 4.

665. Question

Refer to the diagram below. In flying the rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank?

Corner 1.
Corner 3.
Corners 2 and 3.

666. Question

Refer to the diagram below. While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn

1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn.
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.

667. Question

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.